a. Four-fold Test
a. Selection and engagement of employee;
b. Payment of wages;
c. Power of dismissal; and
d. Power of control (the most important test)
Showing posts with label bar exam. Show all posts
Showing posts with label bar exam. Show all posts
Saturday, December 29, 2012
Labor Bar Exam Coverage: Four-fold Test
a. Selection and engagement of employee;
b. Payment of wages;
c. Power of dismissal; and
d. Power of control (the most important test)
Saturday, December 15, 2012
The 2013 Bar Examination
BAR BULLETIN NO. 1
Office of the Bar Confidant
Supreme Court of the Philippines
December 7, 2012
1. Bar Exam Venue: University of Sto. Tomas, Espana, Manila
2. Examination Dates: Four Sundays of October 2013:
October 6:
8 a.m. - 12 noon - Political Law
2 p.m. - 6 p.m. - Labor Law
October 13:
8 a.m. - 12 noon - Civil Law
2 p.m. - 6 p.m. – Taxation
October 20:
8 a.m. - 12 noon - Commercial Law
2 p.m. - 6 p.m. - Criminal Law
October 27:
8 a.m. - 12 noon - Remedial Law
2 p.m. - 6 p.m - Legal Ethics
3. Coverage: Questions shall strictly fall within the defined Syllabus for every subject. The Syllabi shall be released through a Bar Bulletin or before December 31, 2012.
The cut-off for Supreme Court decisions covered by the 2013 Bar Examinations shall be January 31, 2013. 2
4. Exam Structure and Format of Questions
a. The Examination shall consist of 20% Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) and 80% Essay-type questions.
b. Whether MCQ or essay, the questions shall be based on a given set of facts, presented as briefly but as clearly and completely as possible, taking into account that every examinee needs reading, understanding, consideration of the applicable law, and answering time for every question.
The whole examination should be answerable by the average bar examinee within 3 .5 hours (210 minutes) to allow him or her 30 minutes of review time.
c. The basic elements of problem solving that the Examiners shall particularly look for are: the examinee's (1) proper understanding and appreciation of the facts, particularly of the components or details that can be material in resolving the given problem; (2) his or her appreciation of the applicable /awls that may come into play; (3) recognition of the issues posed; and the (4) resolution of the issues through the analysis and application of the law to the given facts. The examinee's presentation and articulation of his or her answer shall also be given weight.
d. The 20% MCQ portion of the examination shall be divided into 4 or 5 main fact situations from which the MCQ questions shall be asked.
The 80% essay portion of the exam shall be divided into eight (8) divisions of ten (10) points each, with a maximum of two facts per division from which question shall be drawn.
The corresponding weight of each question shall properly be indicated in the questionnaire, together with estimated answering time, to allow the examinee proper allotment of his or her exam time.
5. Communications
a. All administrative matters relating to the Bar Examinations shall be handled by and shall be coursed through the Supreme Court's Office of the Bar Confidant's (OBC). All communications should be addressed to the Office of the Bar Confidant c/o Atty. Tina Layusa, SC Bar Confidant.
b. The OBC can be reached at landline number 5257929; 5268122; 5268119; cellular phone number 09088864293; and by e-mail at baroffice@sc.judiciary.goy.ph. It holds office at the Supreme Court, Padre Faura, Manila, and is open at regular office hours on regular working days. All inquiries regarding the Bar Examinations should be directed at the OBC. Interested parties are urged to first communicate with the OBC by phone or by email to determine if the need exists for them to personally go to the OBC.
c. The Bar Confidant shall act as Spokesperson for the Bar Examinations and shall handle all announcements and relations with the media, with the law schools, and with examinees. Public announcements shall be through Bar Bulletins issued by the OBC at the SC website:
sc.j udiciary .gov. ph.
Wednesday, March 16, 2011
PREPARING FOR THE 2011 BAR EXAMS AND BEYOND
I. CHANGES IN THE 2011 BAR EXAMINATIONS
A. FIRST APPROVED CHANGE: REDEFINE COVERAGE
The current practice is to define the coverage of the bar exams by naming the laws that each subject will cover. For example, in Civil Law the coverage is –
1. The Civil Code of the Philippines
2. The Family Code
3. The Domestic Adoption Act
4. The Inter-Country Adoption Act
5. The Property Registration Decree,
6. Conflict of Laws
7. Supreme Court decisions touching the above
Everybody insists that questions in bar exams, to be reasonable, must stick to the “basics.” But does the above list tell you the “basics” of Civil Law?
It does not. The description of coverage by just naming the law is too general. Examiners and
students are unsure of what questions to expect. Consider some examples from past bar exams:
True or False. The Howey Test states that there is an investment contract when a person
invests money in a common enterprise and is led to expect profits primarily from the efforts of
others. 1%
Would you have predicted this kind of question? Another example:
In several policy addresses extensively covered by media since his appointment on December
21, 2005, Chief Justice Artemio V. Panganiban vowed to leave a judiciary characterized by “four
Ins” and to focus in solving the “four ACID” problems that corrode the administration of justice
in our country.
Explain this “four Ins” and “four ACID” problems. 2.5%
Would you have anticipated this? Here is another one:
Where is the seat of the International Court of Justice? 1%
How many are its members? 1 %
What is the term of their office? 1 %
Who is its incumbent president? 1 %
What is his/her nationality? 1 %
Is this basic in public international law?
Does knowing the answers qualify one to practice law? Why did these kind of questions creep into
the bar examinations? It is because there has been no prior attempt to determine what constitutes the
basics of law practice.
In the past, particularly the pre-war era, there were only a few laws and jurisprudence making it
unnecessary to define the basics of law practice. But our laws and jurisprudence have since grown
enormously. Describing coverage by enumerating the laws has made the determination of what is basic a
hazardous guessing game. Examinees are forced to memorize trivial details, lest these be asked in the bar
exams. Fear of the unknown dissipates the energies and time of candidates and takes them away from the
really important and basic matters.
To address this need, coverage shall be drawn up by topics and sub-topics rather than by just stating
the covered law.
The test for including a topic or sub-topic in the coverage of the bar exams is whether it covers laws,
doctrines, principles and rulings that a new lawyer needs to know to begin his practice. After all, the
objective of the bar exams is to determine who among law graduates are fit to practice law. For example,
in Political Law, rather than say that the exam will cover the Constitution of the Philippines, it will name
the important topics and sub-topics under the Constitution. Thus:
POLITICAL LAW
Bill of Rights
Equal Protection
Meaning
Valid Classification
Substantial distinctions
Relevance to purpose
Duration
Applicability to all
Double Jeopardy
Valid Complaint
Competent Court
Valid Plea
Termination of case
Prosecution’s appeal
Same offense
Supervening event
Inseparable offenses
Even the description of coverage by topics and sub-topics cannot be too generalized, like this:
MERCANTILE LAW
x x x
Intellectual Property
General provisions
Patents
Trademarks
Copyrights
x x x
The description is too general. The Intellectual Property Code has 241 sections that include
administrative matters. It would be unreasonable to assume that all the provisions of the Intellectual
Property Code may be regarded as basic materials for beginning practitioners when their potential clients’
rights are affected only by a few of such provisions.
The U.P. Law Center is convening the country’s leading reviewers and lecturers to draw up a
proposed coverage of the 2011 bar exams per law subject by topics and sub-topics. When approved,
these new definitions of coverage will be disseminated early to enable the current fourth year law students
to focus their review on what is basic and stay away from the non-essentials.
Thus, the first approved change: Redefine Coverage.
B. SECOND APPROVED CHANGE: MEASURE KNOWLEDGE OF LAW AND ITS
APPLICATIONS THROUGH MCQ EXAMS
The mandate of the Constitution is for the Supreme Court to promulgate rules concerning admission
to the practice of law. The Supreme Court’s duty then is to establish by rules the means for determining
who may be admitted to the practice of law. And to fairly practice law, the examinee should:
1. Know the law and its applications; and
2. Be capable of practicing it.
The bar exams shall test the examinee’s working knowledge of the law and its applications. The key
word is “working” as distinguished from “idle” knowledge or knowledge for the sake of knowing, like a
lawyer knowing the circumference of the earth.
Does the existing essay-type of bar exams correctly measure the bar examinee’s level of knowledge
of the law and its applications? Many have complained that the essay type of exams suffers from the
following problems:
1. The bar exams follow the essay-type classroom model. Example: 10 questions in a 2-hour exam
in Property. Applied to the bar exams, only 20 questions could ideally be asked for a 4-hour
exam in all of civil law. This cannot hit a significant cross-section of such law. The desire to
squeeze in as many essay questions as possible (10 items with 5 to 7 sub-items) has compelled
examinees to give sloppy and quickie answers.
2. Great emphasis is placed on identifying the examiner to narrow down the guessing on questions
that will be asked.
3. An eloquently presented but incorrect answer could gain a good mark.
4. Uniformity and fairness in correction is not assured because about 6,000 notebooks have to be
corrected in 5 months. Correctors scan the answers rather than read to appreciate them.
5. The mood of the correctors and their varying levels of attentiveness jeopardize judgment and
unfairly influence grading.
Multiple choice questions (MCQs) type of exam is a method of choice for qualifying professionals,
including lawyers, in the United States and all over the world because of their proven reliability. The
MCQ type of exam has of course the following disadvantages:
1. It does not measure communication skills.
2. It is not a reliable gauge of true or ideal knowledge, fine reasoning and creative thinking.
3. Developing well-constructed MCQs is time-consuming and difficult.
These disadvantages, however, can be overcome by exercising care in drawing up MCQs and by
providing for a mix of MCQ and essay types of exams. Furthermore, the advantages of MCQs, on the
other hand, are weighty:
1. Since correction can be done by scanning machine, the result can be known in one or two days.
2. Correction is objective since every question has one definite answer. Hand writing, no problem.
3. It permits a wider scope of topics since the examiner can ask as many as 100 questions in a 1 ½ hour exam.
4. Mastery of subject is encouraged because of the difficulty of distinguishing between a correct and a nearly-correct answer.
5. Since questions are straightforward, gaps in knowledge can be easily identified, helping schools adopt remedies.
6. Since the answers are given, understanding, not memorization, is required for a correct choice of answer.
The bar exams team, assisted by experts, will monitor and evaluate the construction and selection of appropriate MCQs.
Thus, the second approved change: measure knowledge of law and its applications through MCQ Exams.
C. THIRD APPROVED CHANGE: LAWYERING SKILLS ESSAY EXAM
Of course, it is not enough for the Court to find out if an examinee knows the law and its
applications. Determining whether the examinee has the basic skills required in the practice of law is just
as important. Thus, the Supreme Court shall give separate essay-type of exams dedicated to determining
the examinee’s lawyering skills. He will be presented with one or two legal-dispute situations in each law
subject. He will then prepare a paper, like a memorandum or a decision, for the side of the dispute that he
chooses to uphold or defend.
This will test the examinee’s skills in writing in English, sorting out the relevant facts, identifying
the issue or issues, organizing his thoughts, constructing his arguments, and persuading his reader to his
point of view. It will not be graded for technically right or wrong answers, but for the quality of the
examinee’s legal advocacy.
The skills exams will help measure depth of learning and true intelligence. The passing standard for
correction will be work expected of a beginning practitioner, not a seasoned lawyer. Since this kind of
exam will be given in all subjects, 8 examiners will be assessing the examinee’s lawyering skills. Their
collective judgment ought to minimize the subjectivity of the correction.
Thus, the third approved change: dedicated essay-type exams to measuring lawyering skills.
These changes are the product of consultations with the law schools, a major stakeholder in bar
exams. We have a Resolution from the Philippine Association of Law Schools fully endorsing these
changes. The law schools undertake to prepare their present fourth year students for these kinds of exams
in 2011.
To summarize, the three approved changes are:
1. Redefine coverage.
2. Measure knowledge of law and its applications through MCQ exams.
3. Dedicate essay-type exams to measuring lawyering skills.
Thus, beginning in 2011, the bar examinations shall be of two kinds:
1. Multiple Choice Questions that will measure the examinee’s knowledge of law and its applications; and
2. Essay-Type exams that will measure the examinee’s lawyering skills.
II. PREPARING FOR THE MCQ BAR EXAMINATIONS
A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN THE 2011 BAR EXAMS
1. What makes a good MCQ exam?
The multiple choice questions (MCQs) should be able to measure the level of the examinee’s
preparedness for the work of a lawyer. But it will be valid only to the extent that it can reach this
objective. Exams of this kind in the classrooms are encouraged to prepare the students for the bar exams.
2. Weight given to each law subject:
Political Law — 15%
Labor Law — 10%
Civil Law — 15%
Taxation — 10%
Mercantile Law — 15%
Criminal Law — 10%
Remedial Law — 20%
Legal Ethics/Forms — 5%
3. What specific competences will the MCQs measure?
a. The examinee’s knowledge of the law and its basic principles and his ability to recall them (20%);
b. His ability to understand the meaning and significance of the law and its basic principles (40%); and
c. His ability to analyze legal problems and provide solutions to them (40%).
4. Preparing an MCQ item.1 Prepare the STEM of the MCQ item, which presents the problem –
The jurisdiction of courts are determined by – (STEM)
Add to the STEM a list of possible options or answers. Of these options, only one will be correct.
The jurisdiction of courts are determined by – (stem)
A. Congress. (correct choice)
The others will be incorrect but plausible options called “distractors.” What is a PLAUSIBLE
option? It is an option that appears to be correct and acceptable. Parang pwede rin pero mali. It is an
option that can mislead an examinee who is unsure of his answer. If you provide patently wrong options,
you practically give away the answer. Thus, the question fails to assess the examinee’s knowledge and
ability.
The jurisdiction of courts are determined by – (stem)
A. Congress. (correct choice)
B. The Supreme Court. (distractor)
C. The Judicial and Bar Council. (distractor)
D. The Court Administrator. (distractor)
The stem may be presented either as a question—
Who determines the jurisdiction of courts? (stem)
Or an incomplete statement—The jurisdiction of courts are determined by (stem)
The stem must present a clear and specific problem.
The jurisdiction of courts are— (this stem does not present a problem)
Improved:
The jurisdiction of courts are determined by—(this asks who determines the jurisdiction of courts)
A. Congress.
B. the Supreme Court.
C. the Judicial and Bar Council.
D. the Court Administrator.
B. THE THREE COMPETENCES MEASURED BY MCQS
1. Knowledge and recall.
When you want to find out if the examinee knows a specific law or principle, write down such
specific law or principle as your “proposition” or the subject matter of your MCQ. Thus:
Proposition:
The majority age begins at the age of 18.
The first part of your proposition will be your STEM while the second part will be your correct
answer. Then add 3 distractors and mix it with the correct option. Thus:
The majority age begins at the age of (stem)
A. 21 (distractor)
B. 20 (distractor)
C. 18 (correct option)
D. 16 (distractor)
This will test the examinee’s knowledge of what the legal majority age is and his ability to recall
such fact.
Here are other examples of “knowledge and recall” MCQs:
Proposition:
A Court of Appeals Justice may solemnize marriage anywhere in the Philippines.
MCQ:
Who may solemnize marriage anywhere in the Philippines?
A. A Consul-general
B. A Court of Appeals justice
C. A ship captain
D. A military commander
* * *
Proposition:
To be enforceable, a contract must comply with the Statute of Frauds when by its terms it is
to be performed beyond a year from its making.
MCQ:
To be enforceable, when must a contract comply with the Statute of Frauds? When by its
terms it is to be performed beyond
A. a year from its making.
B. 5 years from its making.
C. a year from its ratification.
D. 5 years from its ratification.
* * *
Proposition:
The Revised Penal Code may be enforced outside the jurisdiction of the Philippines when
one commits a crime against national security.
MCQ:
The Revised Penal Code may be enforced outside the jurisdiction of the Philippines when
A. one commits an offense on any ship or airship.
B. one introduces into the Philippines any counterfeit coin.
C. a public officer enters into a bigamous marriage.
D. one commits a crime against national security.
* * *
Proposition:
Congress may submit to the electorate the question of calling a constitutional convention by
a majority vote of all its Members.
MCQ:
What vote is required for Congress to submit to the electorate the question of calling a
constitutional convention?
A. A vote of two-thirds of all its Members.
B. A vote of two-thirds of a quorum.
C. A majority vote of all its Members.
D. A majority vote of a quorum.
A knowledge and recall item is easy to prepare since it evolves from a simple statement of a
provision of law or a legal principle. But this skill is the lowest in the ladder of skills for new lawyers. It
is sheer memorization. The bar exams will devote only 20% of all MCQ items to this kind of MCQs.
2. Understanding
A higher level of skills for a beginning practitioner is understanding. This type tests whether the
examinee truly understands a specific law or principle. And he can show this if he can correctly relate the
law or principle to specific situations. For example:
Proposition:
A warrantless search is valid when the search is made by policemen at a COMELEC
checkpoint.
MCQ:
A warrantless search is valid when the search is made by A. a customs officers
at the home of a known smuggler.
B. anti-drug enforcers.
C. policemen at a COMELEC checkpoint.
D. NBI agents looking for a bomb at a mall.
This item tests the examinee’s understanding of what a warrantless search means. A “warrantless
search” is search made of persons or properties without a judicial search warrant.
This kind of MCQ is a grade more difficult to prepare but measures a higher level of ability than just
knowledge and recall. To test the examinee’s understanding of “warrantless search,” he is required to
choose from the four options the situation that comes under such concept.
When preparing an MCQ item on the examinee’s “UNDERSTANDING” of a specific law or
principle, begin by writing down your proposition – the matter you want to turn into an MCQ. For
example:
Proposition:
An “antecedent collateral evidence” of a bank robbery that several accused committed
would be the kinship among them.
This item tests the examinee’s understanding of a concept in Evidence. An “antecedent collateral
evidence” proves a past event to show the likelihood of a subsequent event taking place. He must choose
the situation that comes under such concept.
MCQ:
Which of the following constitutes antecedent collateral evidence of a bank robbery that
several accused committed?
A. The act of the lookout during the robbery.
B. The kinship among them.
C. The amount missing from the bank’s vault
D. The fingerprints on the teller’s counter.
How does “knowledge and recall” differ from “understanding?” Example:
Knowledge and Recall
A justifying circumstance makes an act
A. three degrees less severe .
B. exempt from criminal liability.
C. non-criminal. (merely restates the law)
D. pardonable.
Understanding
A justifying circumstance is exemplified by
A. a retreat from aggression.
B. a pre-emptive blow.
C. a counter blow. (illustrates meaning)
D. a good intention.
Other examples that test “understanding”:
Proposition:
Real or object evidence is authenticated by showing that it is what it is claimed to be.
MCQ:
Real or object evidence is authenticated by showing
A. who owns it.
B. that it is what it is claimed to be.
C. how the evidence got to court.
D. similar or like objects.
* * *
Proposition:
An uninterrupted possession for a statutory period of time without the need of just title and
good faith are requisites for extraordinary acquisitive prescription.
MCQ:
An uninterrupted possession for a statutory period of time without the need of just title and
good faith are requisites for
A. laches.
B. prescription of actions.
C. ordinary acquisitive prescription.
D. extraordinary acquisitive prescription.
The bar exams will devote 40% of all MCQ items to questions that test the examinee’s
understanding of the law.
3. Analysis and Solution
Here, you test the examinee’s ability to (a) analyze a given problem, (b) determine the law or
principle that applies to such problem, and (c) solve the same.
To construct your MCQ, begin by stating your chosen proposition. For example:
Proposition:
Sonny, a Filipino citizen obtained a divorce in Canada from his wife, Lulu, also a Filipino
citizen. Is the divorce valid and binding? (facts of the problem)
It is not. (answer to the problem)
The reason is that Philippine law, which is binding upon Filipinos wherever they may be,
does not permit absolute divorce. (the applicable rule)
If you analyze this, it is a typical essay-type exam with the answer and reason given here. Actually,
this was a bar exam item a few years back. You can convert it into an MCQ item by using the facts of the
problem as your STEM, thus:
Sonny, a Filipino citizen, obtained a divorce in Canada from his wife, Lulu, also a Filipino
citizen. Is the divorce valid and binding? (This will be your stem.)
You then add to your stem, as one of your options, the answer to the problem and the reason for
such answer:
Sonny, a Filipino citizen, obtained a divorce in Canada from his wife, Lulu, also a Filipino
citizen. Is the divorce valid and binding?
It is not since Philippine law binds Filipinos abroad and it does not permit divorce.
Now add your distractors as alternate options, varying their locations:
MCQ:
Sonny, a Filipino citizen, obtained in a divorce in Canada from his wife, Lulu, also a
Filipino citizen. Is the divorce valid and binding?
A. It is not since Philippine law binds Filipinos abroad and it does not permit divorce.
B. It is since Philippine law does not operate in Canada.
C. It is not since Philippine law is recognized in Canada.
D. It is since international law demands local recognition of foreign acts.
Another example:
Proposition:
A person walks into a police station and declares that he has committed a crime before the
police could take him into custody. May his declaration be admitted against him? (the problem)
Yes since what is inadmissible are statements the accused made while under custodial
investigation before he could be forewarned of his rights. (the answer and short reason for it)
MCQ:
A person walks into a police station and declares that he has committed a crime before the
police could take him into custody. May his declaration be admitted against him?
A. No since he has not been forewarned of his rights to silence and to counsel.
B. Yes since he made his declaration before he could be taken into custody and investigated.
C. No since he has entered the police station and came within its jurisdiction.
D. Yes since he freely gave his declaration to the police.
* * *
Proposition:
In a case, a very old woman executed a will, witnessed by a friend, a cousin, and a notary
public. Is the will valid?
The will is invalid since it is a must that it be attested and subscribed by three or more
credible witnesses in the presence of the testator and of one another.
MCQ:
In a case, a very old woman executed a will. A friend, a cousin, and a notary public came to
witness the will. Due to old age she thumbmarked the will instead of signing it. The friend
signed the pages on the right margin, thinking it looked better. The cousin did not see this
because his eyes were on a painting that hanged on a nearby wall. Finally, the notary public
notarized the will.
The will is invalid because
A. the cousin looked away just as the friend was signing the will.
B. the testator failed to subscribe the will.
C. the friend signed at the right margin.
D. of lack of sufficient witnesses.
Note that, in the above, the stem or the facts of the problem also embodied the distractors.
Proposition:
A couple named their son Mario Lopez. But a confused clerk at the hospital registered his
name as Maria Lopez and his gender as female. Does the civil registrar have the authority tocorrect thechild’s name and gender on the birth certificate
No since the law authorizes administrative correction by the civil registrar only of clerical or
typographical error in an entry and/or change of first name or nickname.
MCQ:
A couple named their son Mario Lopez. But a confused clerk at the hospital registered his
name as Maria Lopez and his gender as female. The city civil registrar has authority to:
A. correct his name and gender.
B. correct his name but not his gender.
C. correct his gender but not his name.
D. indorse the case to court.
* * *
Proposition:
A decision states that the defendant is entitled to moral damages but its dispositive portion
did not carry an award of moral damages. The writ of execution, however, orders the defendant
to pay moral damages of P5,000. Must he comply?
He does not need to comply since it is the dispositive portion of the decision that controls.
MCQ:
A decision states that the defendant is entitled to moral damages but its dispositive portion
did not carry an award of moral damages. The writ of execution, however, orders the defendant
to pay moral damages of P5,000. Must he comply?
A. Yes since the body of the decision contains the justification for it.
B. No since it is the dispositive portion of the decision that controls.
C. Yes since the writ of execution affirms it.
D. No since the plaintiff needed to pay docket fee on the P5,000.
The examination shall devote 40% of all MCQ items in the bar exams to analysis-and-application
type of MCQs.
C. POINTERS IN THE CONSTRUCTION OF MCQS
1. The examiner can adjust the difficulty level of a test item by simply changing the distractors,
making them too close to the correct answer.2 You should, however, strive for moderate MCQs.
Poor:
A criminal action must be filed in the place where
A. the offense took place.
B. the accused resides.
C. the offended party resides.
D. the witness resides.
Improved:
A criminal action must be filed in the place where
A. the offense took place.
B. the accused was apprehended and detained.
C. the offended party resides.
D. the preliminary investigation took place.
2. The number of options may vary but, for the purpose of the bar and classroom exams, four
options would be ideal. This would give only a 25% probability of guessing the right answer. If the
examinee sticks to guessing, on the average he would get 25% correct answers, a sure failure.
3. The distractors should be plausible, not obviously wrong.3 A good way to create distractors is to
think of ways an examinee can possibly go wrong. Thus:
Poor:
Rape is sexual intercourse with the use of
A. foreplay
B. viagra
C. condom
D. force or intimidation.
Improved:
Rape is sexual intercourse with the use of
A. deceit
B. moral ascendance
C. intrigue
D. force or intimidation.
4. The main stem should clearly inform the examinee regarding what the problem is before he reads
his options.4
Poor:
The act of the police in placing the accused in a police line-up – (this statement of the stem
by itself does not present a clear problem)
A. violates his right against self-incrimination.
B. violates his right to counsel.
C. constitutes a valid police investigation procedure.
D. is valid conditioned on his being identified at the trial.
Improved:
The act of the police in placing the accused in a police line-up without his prior consent—
(this now presents a clear problem)
A. violates his right against self-incrimination.
B. violates his right to counsel.
C. constitutes a valid police investigation procedure.
D. is valid conditioned on his being identified at the trial.
5. Include as much of the data in the stem and keep the options as short as possible.5
Poor:
A warrantless search is valid -
A. when the search is made by customs officers at the home of a known smuggler.
B. when the search is made by anti-drug enforcers.
C. when the search is made by policemen at a COMELEC checkpoint.
D. when the search is made for a bomb at the mall by the NBI.
Improved:
A warrantless search is valid when it is made -
A. by customs officers at the home of a known smuggler.
B. by anti-drug enforcers.
C. by policemen at a COMELEC checkpoint for illegal firearms.
D. by the NBI for a bomb at the mall.
6. One of the advantages of MCQs is that you can ask many questions to cover a good cross-section
of a subject. You can do this only if you make your MCQs simple, clear and short. Do not complicate a
problem with unessential facts. Include in the stem only the facts needed to make the problem clear.6
Irrelevant materials in the stem cause confusion.
Poor:
The police nabbed two robbery suspects after a police informer fingered them. During the
investigation, the police officers succeeded in convincing the suspects to go with them to the scene
of the crime, accompanied by the press, to reenact how they committed the crime. Photos were
taken. Was the reenactment admissible evidence?
A. No since it amounts to waiver of right to silence without the advice of counsel.
B. Yes since the reenactment was voluntary.
C. No since it is irrelevant evidence.
D. Yes since the reenactment was unaccompanied by any statement from the suspects.
Why is this poorly writen? Since only the “reenactment” is being questioned, the stem contains too
many unnecessary data.
Improved:
The police nabbed two robbery suspects whom they convinced during the investigation to go
with them to the scene of the crime to reenact how they committed it. Is the reenactment
admissible in evidence?
A. No since it amounts to waiver of right to silence without the advice of counsel.
B. Yes since the reenactment was voluntary.
C. No since it is irrelevant evidence.
D. Yes since the reenactment was unaccompanied by any statement from the suspects.
7. Avoid using the negative in the stem since it often confuses the examinee. But the negative is
justified when it tests his knowledge or understanding of exceptions to rules. In the latter cases, be
creative in using the negative in the problem. Capitalize the negative word to emphasize it.7
Poor:
The Supreme Court will NOT entertain a constitutional question UNLESS it is
determinative of the case itself because
A. it would prejudice the administration of justice.
B. the separation of powers demands respect due the other departments.
C. the Court would not have acquired jurisdiction over the case.
D. there is no actual case or controversy that justifies such a review.
Improved:
The Supreme Court will entertain a constitutional question only if it is determinative of the
case itself because
A. it would prejudice the administration of justice.
B. the separation of powers demands respect due the other departments.
C. the Court would not have acquired jurisdiction over the case.
D. there is no actual case or controversy that justifies such a review.
* * *
Poor:
The bank deposit secrecy law bars all inquiries into a bank deposit. But it allows exceptions.
Which of the following does NOT belong to the exceptions?
A. Cases of impeachment.
B. Cases involving bribery.
C. Cases of bigamy.
D. Cases where the money involved is subject of litigation.
Improved:
The bank deposit secrecy law bars all inquiries into a bank deposit. A deposit may, however,
be looked into
A. after prior notice to the depositor.
B. upon court order in annulment of marriage cases.
C. in cases of impeachment.
D. on motion in a bribery case.
8. Be sure that the choices you provide has only one correct answer that experts would generally
agree on.8 In their desire to make distractors plausible, some writers would include more than one correct
answer or choices that remain unsettled among experts and authorities.
9. Give no unintentional clues.9
Poor:
To prove that Susan stabbed her husband Sergio, Pete testified that he heard Rico running
down the street, shouting excitedly, “Sinaksak daw ni Susan ang asawa niya!” Unfortunately (a
clue to a negative answer), Rico’s declaration is –
A. admissible as part of res gestae.
B. inadmissible as hearsay.
C. admissible as independently relevant statement.
D. inadmissible as a mere opinion.
10. Avoid grammatical inconsistencies.10
Poor:The law that will determine jurisdiction over a particular case is the law in force at the time
of
A. the cause of action accrued.
B. the filing of the action.
C. the issues in the action are joined.
D. the defendant receives the complaint.
11. Avoid length clues.11
Poor:
The right to be presumed innocent is NOT violated by a law that establishes a presumption
of guilt based on a certain fact proved provided that
A. the burden of proving his innocence is shifted to the accused only when there is a
reasonable connection between the fact proved and the fact presumed from it.
B. the nature of the crime permits it.
C. the accused has a chance to overcome it.
D. the law is not retroactive.
Improved:
The right to be presumed innocent is NOT violated by a law that establishes a presumption
of guilt based on a certain fact proved provided that
A. what is proved and presumed are reasonably connected.
B. the nature of the crime committed permits a reverse presumption.
C. the accused has ample opportunity to overcome the adverse presumption.
D. the law is not retroactive.
12. Avoid the options: none of the above or all of the above.12 It gives the impression that the
examiner could not create another distractor. It also encourages questions with no correct answers.
Instead of “none of the above,” just use another distractor which will enhance the quality of the question.
13. Make your questions topic specific, not a hodge-podge of several legal principles.
Poor:
Which of the following laws is unconstitutional?
A. A law requiring cabinet members to attend all congressional hearings upon
proper notice.
B. A law revoking all permits to carry firearms outside of one’s residence.
C. A law authorizing warrantless searches by customs officials.
D. A law providing for dual citizenship.
Asking which law is unconstitutional could cover any topic in Constitutional law. Option A is on
Section 22 of Article VI Legislative Department, while Option B is on undue deprivation of property,
Option C is on rights against warranless search and seizures and Option D is on citizenship. The choices
should be coherent in order to test an examinee’s knowledge on a particular topic.
Improved:
Which is unconstitutional for being an invalid exercise of police power?
A. A law prohibiting the use of motor vehicles on certain days of the week.
B. A law imposing rent control.
C. A law prescribing minimum standards for the practice of the engineering profession.
D. A law prohibiting the sale of cigarettes to young men and women ages 18 to 25.
14. Do not use “modified” true or false questions. They are time consuming and accomplishes
little. Example:
I. The practice of law is a right in the sense that a lawyer cannot be prevented from
practicing law except for valid reasons.
II. The practice of law is a privilege because it is limited to persons of good moral character
with special qualifications duly ascertained and certified.
Which of the following best describes the statements above?
A. Only statement I is true.
B. Only statement II is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. None of the statements are true.
D. POINTERS IN IMPLEMENTING MCQ EXAMS IN THE CLASSROOM
We encourage you, especially those who are currently teaching review subjects, to use both types of
exams (MCQs and essays) for your classes. You need to acquaint your students with the changes in the
bar examinations that begin in 2011. You don’t want them surprised and unprepared. Constructing
MCQs is not difficult once you get the hang of it.
For a classroom examination we suggest that you start with at least 40 to 50 MCQs, eventually to
grow to 70 to 80, and one or two essay-type problems. If you use MCQs, correcting test booklets will no
longer be the great burden that it used to be. A trusted clerk can correct the MCQs, leaving you with only
the one or two essays to correct.
We suggest that you add ten MCQs to what you already have with each new semester until you are
able to build up a big collection of MCQs. Students have the tendency to stash away a copy of your
exams and build up a collection for future use. Take the following precautions:
1. Personally monitor the printing and xeroxing of your MCQs so no excess copies could be
made;
2. Require your students to mark their answers on the test questionaire itself so you can be sure
that they return all the MCQs to you after they have finished; and
3. Secure all used and unused question sheets for subsequent destruction.
To prevent copying between seatmates when the room is full prepare two sets, the second set beinga mere rearrangement of the first, and distribute them alternately to students on the same row.
To prepare for the 2011 bar exams, we invite you to send to the Supreme Court the MCQs you have
prepared and used for your classes. We will place these in a secure Central Depository of MCQs,
esentially as reference for developing bar exam MCQs. We are targeting not less than 1,000 MCQs per
bar subject for the 2011 bar exams. We will choose 100 MCQs per subject for the tests.
The MCQs you will send will give the Committee a reference for determining items of interest in
the academe. And, with a bit of reconstruction (like changing a few details of the stem and makingalterations in the distractors), such MCQs can acquire altered appearances, making them fair materials for
the bar examinations.
We suggest that you send us at least 50 MCQs in the subject you teach, 10 “knowledge and recall”
items, 20 “understanding” items, and 20 “analysis and solution” items. We will evaluate these and, if you
get it right, we will issue you a certificate as expert, first grade, in MCQ construction. This will qualify
you to lecture on the subject and place you in the list of potential bar examiners for the 2011 bar exams
and beyond.
III. PREPARING FOR ESSAY LAWYERING SKILLS EXAM
The second part of the bar exams, the essay type, is aimed at measuring the examinee’s lawyering
skills. It will cover one or two legal-dispute situations for which the examinee will be required to write a
paper.
For example, in Civil Law, the test might read like this:
Instructions:
Below is a hypothetical legal dispute.
a) Choose the side of the dispute that you want to uphold and defend; and
b) Prepare a trial memorandum in support of your position.
Do not write more than 4 arguments.
Suggestions:
a) Read the problem and get a sense of what the issues are;
b) Pick out the facts that are relevant to such issues;
c) Make a summary of the conflicting claims of the parties;
d) State the issues on which the resolution of the dispute will depend;
e) Prepare the arguments against the opposing side and the arguments in support of your own;
and
f) End with the relief you want, your prayer.
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
Alex sued Julio for the injury that his son Andy suffered through the fault of James. Julioresisted the action.
Andy made the following statement:
I am Andy, 10 years old, a grade four student. I am Alex’s son. I have a classmate
named James.
On July 7, I jumped from an adobe fence at the back of our barangay hall and
fractured my left leg. It was quite painful. I could not forget it. Someone called the
barangay captain and he took me to the hospital in a taxicab. The fence was rather tall. A
month ago, after school, James and I climbed and walked on top of it, trying to balance
ourselves as we went. We had previously done this when nobody was around and we
enjoyed the thrill of the heights. We always played together. We even swapped toys when
we were bored with what we had.
On that afternoon of July 7, while James and I were walking the fence, James
remarked to me that a policeman was coming towards us. I was quite terrified. I had been
told that policemen could put misbehaving children in jail. Actually, no policeman had
shown up at all where we were playing but James wanted to make fun of me. But, because
we never had a joke like it before, I really thought he was serious and would not make such
a dangerous joke. So I panicked and jumped from the fence to the ground.
Our teacher once said that James and I were good boys. But we were somewhat full of
play, she said. She had previously caught us playing games inside the classroom and sent
for our parents. The school was quite strict in the matter of order and discipline inside the
campus.
I stayed in the hospital for three days and the doctor had to put a cast on my leg. It
itched a lot afterwards. I walked with great difficulty and could not go back to school for at
least one week. It took a month before they removed the cast and I still walk awkwardly with
a slight pain to this day. I made this statement because my dad, Alex, wants to file an action
against James father, Julio for the injury and pain that I suffered.
For his part, James made the following statement:
I am James, 10 years old, and a grade four student. My dad’s name is Julio. He is a
caring father and always showed concern for his children.
Andy is my classmate and best friend. When Andy jumped from the fence at the back
of the barangay hall on the afternoon of July 7 and appeared hurt, I immediately went down
and called for help. The barangay chairman came and had Andy taken to the hospital. I
did not want Andy to get hurt at all.
Andy and I went together a lot and often played the games that young boys enjoyed,
even when at times these games became a little rough. We knew from what our parents have
been telling us, however, that we should be careful not to get hurt or to hurt others. Still, we
are growing boys and we had previously climbed the fence at the back of the barangay hall
before. What happened on the afternoon of July 7 was that we both climbed the fence after
school. The day was cloudy and cool. We walked on top of the fence and we enjoyed the
thrill that it offered. Andy teased me this time when I walked the fence, saying how slow and
afraid I was. This was of course not true because I was not afraid at all.
When Andy’s turn came, I also made a joke and said that a policeman was coming
towards us when this was not true. I did not expect Andy to be scared by what I said. I made
this statement at my dad’s request.
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
Additional suggestions:
It will be best if you can prepare a draft of your work on blank sheets that you have been
provided. This will permit you to freely edit your work, making marks, erasures, and insertions to
your satisfaction. Just make sure that you leave at least 20 minutes or so for transferring your
work to your examination notebook. One short bell will warn you that you have 20 minutes left.
When the bell rings twice to signal the end of the exam, your notebook will be collected whether
you are finished or not. Time pressure is a part of the exam.
You will not be graded for a technically right or wrong answer but for the quality of your
legal advocacy. The test is intended to measure your skills in:
a) Communicating in English — 20%
b) Sorting out the conflicting claims and extracting those facts that are relevant to the issue or
issues in the case — 15%
c) Identifying the issue or issues presented — 15%
d) Constructing your arguments and persuading your reader to your point of view — 50%
The essay-type exam will help measure depth of learning and true intelligence. The passing
standard for correction will be work expected of a beginning practitioner, not a seasoned lawyer.
ROBERTO A. ABAD
Associate Justice
2011 Bar Exams Chairman
1 Dr. Leticia Asuzano, How to Construct Multiple Choice Items, Compendium for PRC Board Examiners
citing Thorndike, R.M. Measurement and Evaluation in Psychology and Education, Prentice-Hall, 1977,
New York, New York.
2 Ibid.
3 Ibid.
4 Ibid.
5 Ibid.
6 Ibid.
7 Ibid.
8 Ibid.
9 Ibid.
10 Ibid.
11 Ibid.
12 Ibid.
A. FIRST APPROVED CHANGE: REDEFINE COVERAGE
The current practice is to define the coverage of the bar exams by naming the laws that each subject will cover. For example, in Civil Law the coverage is –
1. The Civil Code of the Philippines
2. The Family Code
3. The Domestic Adoption Act
4. The Inter-Country Adoption Act
5. The Property Registration Decree,
6. Conflict of Laws
7. Supreme Court decisions touching the above
Everybody insists that questions in bar exams, to be reasonable, must stick to the “basics.” But does the above list tell you the “basics” of Civil Law?
It does not. The description of coverage by just naming the law is too general. Examiners and
students are unsure of what questions to expect. Consider some examples from past bar exams:
True or False. The Howey Test states that there is an investment contract when a person
invests money in a common enterprise and is led to expect profits primarily from the efforts of
others. 1%
Would you have predicted this kind of question? Another example:
In several policy addresses extensively covered by media since his appointment on December
21, 2005, Chief Justice Artemio V. Panganiban vowed to leave a judiciary characterized by “four
Ins” and to focus in solving the “four ACID” problems that corrode the administration of justice
in our country.
Explain this “four Ins” and “four ACID” problems. 2.5%
Would you have anticipated this? Here is another one:
Where is the seat of the International Court of Justice? 1%
How many are its members? 1 %
What is the term of their office? 1 %
Who is its incumbent president? 1 %
What is his/her nationality? 1 %
Is this basic in public international law?
Does knowing the answers qualify one to practice law? Why did these kind of questions creep into
the bar examinations? It is because there has been no prior attempt to determine what constitutes the
basics of law practice.
In the past, particularly the pre-war era, there were only a few laws and jurisprudence making it
unnecessary to define the basics of law practice. But our laws and jurisprudence have since grown
enormously. Describing coverage by enumerating the laws has made the determination of what is basic a
hazardous guessing game. Examinees are forced to memorize trivial details, lest these be asked in the bar
exams. Fear of the unknown dissipates the energies and time of candidates and takes them away from the
really important and basic matters.
To address this need, coverage shall be drawn up by topics and sub-topics rather than by just stating
the covered law.
The test for including a topic or sub-topic in the coverage of the bar exams is whether it covers laws,
doctrines, principles and rulings that a new lawyer needs to know to begin his practice. After all, the
objective of the bar exams is to determine who among law graduates are fit to practice law. For example,
in Political Law, rather than say that the exam will cover the Constitution of the Philippines, it will name
the important topics and sub-topics under the Constitution. Thus:
POLITICAL LAW
Bill of Rights
Equal Protection
Meaning
Valid Classification
Substantial distinctions
Relevance to purpose
Duration
Applicability to all
Double Jeopardy
Valid Complaint
Competent Court
Valid Plea
Termination of case
Prosecution’s appeal
Same offense
Supervening event
Inseparable offenses
Even the description of coverage by topics and sub-topics cannot be too generalized, like this:
MERCANTILE LAW
x x x
Intellectual Property
General provisions
Patents
Trademarks
Copyrights
x x x
The description is too general. The Intellectual Property Code has 241 sections that include
administrative matters. It would be unreasonable to assume that all the provisions of the Intellectual
Property Code may be regarded as basic materials for beginning practitioners when their potential clients’
rights are affected only by a few of such provisions.
The U.P. Law Center is convening the country’s leading reviewers and lecturers to draw up a
proposed coverage of the 2011 bar exams per law subject by topics and sub-topics. When approved,
these new definitions of coverage will be disseminated early to enable the current fourth year law students
to focus their review on what is basic and stay away from the non-essentials.
Thus, the first approved change: Redefine Coverage.
B. SECOND APPROVED CHANGE: MEASURE KNOWLEDGE OF LAW AND ITS
APPLICATIONS THROUGH MCQ EXAMS
The mandate of the Constitution is for the Supreme Court to promulgate rules concerning admission
to the practice of law. The Supreme Court’s duty then is to establish by rules the means for determining
who may be admitted to the practice of law. And to fairly practice law, the examinee should:
1. Know the law and its applications; and
2. Be capable of practicing it.
The bar exams shall test the examinee’s working knowledge of the law and its applications. The key
word is “working” as distinguished from “idle” knowledge or knowledge for the sake of knowing, like a
lawyer knowing the circumference of the earth.
Does the existing essay-type of bar exams correctly measure the bar examinee’s level of knowledge
of the law and its applications? Many have complained that the essay type of exams suffers from the
following problems:
1. The bar exams follow the essay-type classroom model. Example: 10 questions in a 2-hour exam
in Property. Applied to the bar exams, only 20 questions could ideally be asked for a 4-hour
exam in all of civil law. This cannot hit a significant cross-section of such law. The desire to
squeeze in as many essay questions as possible (10 items with 5 to 7 sub-items) has compelled
examinees to give sloppy and quickie answers.
2. Great emphasis is placed on identifying the examiner to narrow down the guessing on questions
that will be asked.
3. An eloquently presented but incorrect answer could gain a good mark.
4. Uniformity and fairness in correction is not assured because about 6,000 notebooks have to be
corrected in 5 months. Correctors scan the answers rather than read to appreciate them.
5. The mood of the correctors and their varying levels of attentiveness jeopardize judgment and
unfairly influence grading.
Multiple choice questions (MCQs) type of exam is a method of choice for qualifying professionals,
including lawyers, in the United States and all over the world because of their proven reliability. The
MCQ type of exam has of course the following disadvantages:
1. It does not measure communication skills.
2. It is not a reliable gauge of true or ideal knowledge, fine reasoning and creative thinking.
3. Developing well-constructed MCQs is time-consuming and difficult.
These disadvantages, however, can be overcome by exercising care in drawing up MCQs and by
providing for a mix of MCQ and essay types of exams. Furthermore, the advantages of MCQs, on the
other hand, are weighty:
1. Since correction can be done by scanning machine, the result can be known in one or two days.
2. Correction is objective since every question has one definite answer. Hand writing, no problem.
3. It permits a wider scope of topics since the examiner can ask as many as 100 questions in a 1 ½ hour exam.
4. Mastery of subject is encouraged because of the difficulty of distinguishing between a correct and a nearly-correct answer.
5. Since questions are straightforward, gaps in knowledge can be easily identified, helping schools adopt remedies.
6. Since the answers are given, understanding, not memorization, is required for a correct choice of answer.
The bar exams team, assisted by experts, will monitor and evaluate the construction and selection of appropriate MCQs.
Thus, the second approved change: measure knowledge of law and its applications through MCQ Exams.
C. THIRD APPROVED CHANGE: LAWYERING SKILLS ESSAY EXAM
Of course, it is not enough for the Court to find out if an examinee knows the law and its
applications. Determining whether the examinee has the basic skills required in the practice of law is just
as important. Thus, the Supreme Court shall give separate essay-type of exams dedicated to determining
the examinee’s lawyering skills. He will be presented with one or two legal-dispute situations in each law
subject. He will then prepare a paper, like a memorandum or a decision, for the side of the dispute that he
chooses to uphold or defend.
This will test the examinee’s skills in writing in English, sorting out the relevant facts, identifying
the issue or issues, organizing his thoughts, constructing his arguments, and persuading his reader to his
point of view. It will not be graded for technically right or wrong answers, but for the quality of the
examinee’s legal advocacy.
The skills exams will help measure depth of learning and true intelligence. The passing standard for
correction will be work expected of a beginning practitioner, not a seasoned lawyer. Since this kind of
exam will be given in all subjects, 8 examiners will be assessing the examinee’s lawyering skills. Their
collective judgment ought to minimize the subjectivity of the correction.
Thus, the third approved change: dedicated essay-type exams to measuring lawyering skills.
These changes are the product of consultations with the law schools, a major stakeholder in bar
exams. We have a Resolution from the Philippine Association of Law Schools fully endorsing these
changes. The law schools undertake to prepare their present fourth year students for these kinds of exams
in 2011.
To summarize, the three approved changes are:
1. Redefine coverage.
2. Measure knowledge of law and its applications through MCQ exams.
3. Dedicate essay-type exams to measuring lawyering skills.
Thus, beginning in 2011, the bar examinations shall be of two kinds:
1. Multiple Choice Questions that will measure the examinee’s knowledge of law and its applications; and
2. Essay-Type exams that will measure the examinee’s lawyering skills.
II. PREPARING FOR THE MCQ BAR EXAMINATIONS
A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN THE 2011 BAR EXAMS
1. What makes a good MCQ exam?
The multiple choice questions (MCQs) should be able to measure the level of the examinee’s
preparedness for the work of a lawyer. But it will be valid only to the extent that it can reach this
objective. Exams of this kind in the classrooms are encouraged to prepare the students for the bar exams.
2. Weight given to each law subject:
Political Law — 15%
Labor Law — 10%
Civil Law — 15%
Taxation — 10%
Mercantile Law — 15%
Criminal Law — 10%
Remedial Law — 20%
Legal Ethics/Forms — 5%
3. What specific competences will the MCQs measure?
a. The examinee’s knowledge of the law and its basic principles and his ability to recall them (20%);
b. His ability to understand the meaning and significance of the law and its basic principles (40%); and
c. His ability to analyze legal problems and provide solutions to them (40%).
4. Preparing an MCQ item.1 Prepare the STEM of the MCQ item, which presents the problem –
The jurisdiction of courts are determined by – (STEM)
Add to the STEM a list of possible options or answers. Of these options, only one will be correct.
The jurisdiction of courts are determined by – (stem)
A. Congress. (correct choice)
The others will be incorrect but plausible options called “distractors.” What is a PLAUSIBLE
option? It is an option that appears to be correct and acceptable. Parang pwede rin pero mali. It is an
option that can mislead an examinee who is unsure of his answer. If you provide patently wrong options,
you practically give away the answer. Thus, the question fails to assess the examinee’s knowledge and
ability.
The jurisdiction of courts are determined by – (stem)
A. Congress. (correct choice)
B. The Supreme Court. (distractor)
C. The Judicial and Bar Council. (distractor)
D. The Court Administrator. (distractor)
The stem may be presented either as a question—
Who determines the jurisdiction of courts? (stem)
Or an incomplete statement—The jurisdiction of courts are determined by (stem)
The stem must present a clear and specific problem.
The jurisdiction of courts are— (this stem does not present a problem)
Improved:
The jurisdiction of courts are determined by—(this asks who determines the jurisdiction of courts)
A. Congress.
B. the Supreme Court.
C. the Judicial and Bar Council.
D. the Court Administrator.
B. THE THREE COMPETENCES MEASURED BY MCQS
1. Knowledge and recall.
When you want to find out if the examinee knows a specific law or principle, write down such
specific law or principle as your “proposition” or the subject matter of your MCQ. Thus:
Proposition:
The majority age begins at the age of 18.
The first part of your proposition will be your STEM while the second part will be your correct
answer. Then add 3 distractors and mix it with the correct option. Thus:
The majority age begins at the age of (stem)
A. 21 (distractor)
B. 20 (distractor)
C. 18 (correct option)
D. 16 (distractor)
This will test the examinee’s knowledge of what the legal majority age is and his ability to recall
such fact.
Here are other examples of “knowledge and recall” MCQs:
Proposition:
A Court of Appeals Justice may solemnize marriage anywhere in the Philippines.
MCQ:
Who may solemnize marriage anywhere in the Philippines?
A. A Consul-general
B. A Court of Appeals justice
C. A ship captain
D. A military commander
* * *
Proposition:
To be enforceable, a contract must comply with the Statute of Frauds when by its terms it is
to be performed beyond a year from its making.
MCQ:
To be enforceable, when must a contract comply with the Statute of Frauds? When by its
terms it is to be performed beyond
A. a year from its making.
B. 5 years from its making.
C. a year from its ratification.
D. 5 years from its ratification.
* * *
Proposition:
The Revised Penal Code may be enforced outside the jurisdiction of the Philippines when
one commits a crime against national security.
MCQ:
The Revised Penal Code may be enforced outside the jurisdiction of the Philippines when
A. one commits an offense on any ship or airship.
B. one introduces into the Philippines any counterfeit coin.
C. a public officer enters into a bigamous marriage.
D. one commits a crime against national security.
* * *
Proposition:
Congress may submit to the electorate the question of calling a constitutional convention by
a majority vote of all its Members.
MCQ:
What vote is required for Congress to submit to the electorate the question of calling a
constitutional convention?
A. A vote of two-thirds of all its Members.
B. A vote of two-thirds of a quorum.
C. A majority vote of all its Members.
D. A majority vote of a quorum.
A knowledge and recall item is easy to prepare since it evolves from a simple statement of a
provision of law or a legal principle. But this skill is the lowest in the ladder of skills for new lawyers. It
is sheer memorization. The bar exams will devote only 20% of all MCQ items to this kind of MCQs.
2. Understanding
A higher level of skills for a beginning practitioner is understanding. This type tests whether the
examinee truly understands a specific law or principle. And he can show this if he can correctly relate the
law or principle to specific situations. For example:
Proposition:
A warrantless search is valid when the search is made by policemen at a COMELEC
checkpoint.
MCQ:
A warrantless search is valid when the search is made by A. a customs officers
at the home of a known smuggler.
B. anti-drug enforcers.
C. policemen at a COMELEC checkpoint.
D. NBI agents looking for a bomb at a mall.
This item tests the examinee’s understanding of what a warrantless search means. A “warrantless
search” is search made of persons or properties without a judicial search warrant.
This kind of MCQ is a grade more difficult to prepare but measures a higher level of ability than just
knowledge and recall. To test the examinee’s understanding of “warrantless search,” he is required to
choose from the four options the situation that comes under such concept.
When preparing an MCQ item on the examinee’s “UNDERSTANDING” of a specific law or
principle, begin by writing down your proposition – the matter you want to turn into an MCQ. For
example:
Proposition:
An “antecedent collateral evidence” of a bank robbery that several accused committed
would be the kinship among them.
This item tests the examinee’s understanding of a concept in Evidence. An “antecedent collateral
evidence” proves a past event to show the likelihood of a subsequent event taking place. He must choose
the situation that comes under such concept.
MCQ:
Which of the following constitutes antecedent collateral evidence of a bank robbery that
several accused committed?
A. The act of the lookout during the robbery.
B. The kinship among them.
C. The amount missing from the bank’s vault
D. The fingerprints on the teller’s counter.
How does “knowledge and recall” differ from “understanding?” Example:
Knowledge and Recall
A justifying circumstance makes an act
A. three degrees less severe .
B. exempt from criminal liability.
C. non-criminal. (merely restates the law)
D. pardonable.
Understanding
A justifying circumstance is exemplified by
A. a retreat from aggression.
B. a pre-emptive blow.
C. a counter blow. (illustrates meaning)
D. a good intention.
Other examples that test “understanding”:
Proposition:
Real or object evidence is authenticated by showing that it is what it is claimed to be.
MCQ:
Real or object evidence is authenticated by showing
A. who owns it.
B. that it is what it is claimed to be.
C. how the evidence got to court.
D. similar or like objects.
* * *
Proposition:
An uninterrupted possession for a statutory period of time without the need of just title and
good faith are requisites for extraordinary acquisitive prescription.
MCQ:
An uninterrupted possession for a statutory period of time without the need of just title and
good faith are requisites for
A. laches.
B. prescription of actions.
C. ordinary acquisitive prescription.
D. extraordinary acquisitive prescription.
The bar exams will devote 40% of all MCQ items to questions that test the examinee’s
understanding of the law.
3. Analysis and Solution
Here, you test the examinee’s ability to (a) analyze a given problem, (b) determine the law or
principle that applies to such problem, and (c) solve the same.
To construct your MCQ, begin by stating your chosen proposition. For example:
Proposition:
Sonny, a Filipino citizen obtained a divorce in Canada from his wife, Lulu, also a Filipino
citizen. Is the divorce valid and binding? (facts of the problem)
It is not. (answer to the problem)
The reason is that Philippine law, which is binding upon Filipinos wherever they may be,
does not permit absolute divorce. (the applicable rule)
If you analyze this, it is a typical essay-type exam with the answer and reason given here. Actually,
this was a bar exam item a few years back. You can convert it into an MCQ item by using the facts of the
problem as your STEM, thus:
Sonny, a Filipino citizen, obtained a divorce in Canada from his wife, Lulu, also a Filipino
citizen. Is the divorce valid and binding? (This will be your stem.)
You then add to your stem, as one of your options, the answer to the problem and the reason for
such answer:
Sonny, a Filipino citizen, obtained a divorce in Canada from his wife, Lulu, also a Filipino
citizen. Is the divorce valid and binding?
It is not since Philippine law binds Filipinos abroad and it does not permit divorce.
Now add your distractors as alternate options, varying their locations:
MCQ:
Sonny, a Filipino citizen, obtained in a divorce in Canada from his wife, Lulu, also a
Filipino citizen. Is the divorce valid and binding?
A. It is not since Philippine law binds Filipinos abroad and it does not permit divorce.
B. It is since Philippine law does not operate in Canada.
C. It is not since Philippine law is recognized in Canada.
D. It is since international law demands local recognition of foreign acts.
Another example:
Proposition:
A person walks into a police station and declares that he has committed a crime before the
police could take him into custody. May his declaration be admitted against him? (the problem)
Yes since what is inadmissible are statements the accused made while under custodial
investigation before he could be forewarned of his rights. (the answer and short reason for it)
MCQ:
A person walks into a police station and declares that he has committed a crime before the
police could take him into custody. May his declaration be admitted against him?
A. No since he has not been forewarned of his rights to silence and to counsel.
B. Yes since he made his declaration before he could be taken into custody and investigated.
C. No since he has entered the police station and came within its jurisdiction.
D. Yes since he freely gave his declaration to the police.
* * *
Proposition:
In a case, a very old woman executed a will, witnessed by a friend, a cousin, and a notary
public. Is the will valid?
The will is invalid since it is a must that it be attested and subscribed by three or more
credible witnesses in the presence of the testator and of one another.
MCQ:
In a case, a very old woman executed a will. A friend, a cousin, and a notary public came to
witness the will. Due to old age she thumbmarked the will instead of signing it. The friend
signed the pages on the right margin, thinking it looked better. The cousin did not see this
because his eyes were on a painting that hanged on a nearby wall. Finally, the notary public
notarized the will.
The will is invalid because
A. the cousin looked away just as the friend was signing the will.
B. the testator failed to subscribe the will.
C. the friend signed at the right margin.
D. of lack of sufficient witnesses.
Note that, in the above, the stem or the facts of the problem also embodied the distractors.
Proposition:
A couple named their son Mario Lopez. But a confused clerk at the hospital registered his
name as Maria Lopez and his gender as female. Does the civil registrar have the authority tocorrect thechild’s name and gender on the birth certificate
No since the law authorizes administrative correction by the civil registrar only of clerical or
typographical error in an entry and/or change of first name or nickname.
MCQ:
A couple named their son Mario Lopez. But a confused clerk at the hospital registered his
name as Maria Lopez and his gender as female. The city civil registrar has authority to:
A. correct his name and gender.
B. correct his name but not his gender.
C. correct his gender but not his name.
D. indorse the case to court.
* * *
Proposition:
A decision states that the defendant is entitled to moral damages but its dispositive portion
did not carry an award of moral damages. The writ of execution, however, orders the defendant
to pay moral damages of P5,000. Must he comply?
He does not need to comply since it is the dispositive portion of the decision that controls.
MCQ:
A decision states that the defendant is entitled to moral damages but its dispositive portion
did not carry an award of moral damages. The writ of execution, however, orders the defendant
to pay moral damages of P5,000. Must he comply?
A. Yes since the body of the decision contains the justification for it.
B. No since it is the dispositive portion of the decision that controls.
C. Yes since the writ of execution affirms it.
D. No since the plaintiff needed to pay docket fee on the P5,000.
The examination shall devote 40% of all MCQ items in the bar exams to analysis-and-application
type of MCQs.
C. POINTERS IN THE CONSTRUCTION OF MCQS
1. The examiner can adjust the difficulty level of a test item by simply changing the distractors,
making them too close to the correct answer.2 You should, however, strive for moderate MCQs.
Poor:
A criminal action must be filed in the place where
A. the offense took place.
B. the accused resides.
C. the offended party resides.
D. the witness resides.
Improved:
A criminal action must be filed in the place where
A. the offense took place.
B. the accused was apprehended and detained.
C. the offended party resides.
D. the preliminary investigation took place.
2. The number of options may vary but, for the purpose of the bar and classroom exams, four
options would be ideal. This would give only a 25% probability of guessing the right answer. If the
examinee sticks to guessing, on the average he would get 25% correct answers, a sure failure.
3. The distractors should be plausible, not obviously wrong.3 A good way to create distractors is to
think of ways an examinee can possibly go wrong. Thus:
Poor:
Rape is sexual intercourse with the use of
A. foreplay
B. viagra
C. condom
D. force or intimidation.
Improved:
Rape is sexual intercourse with the use of
A. deceit
B. moral ascendance
C. intrigue
D. force or intimidation.
4. The main stem should clearly inform the examinee regarding what the problem is before he reads
his options.4
Poor:
The act of the police in placing the accused in a police line-up – (this statement of the stem
by itself does not present a clear problem)
A. violates his right against self-incrimination.
B. violates his right to counsel.
C. constitutes a valid police investigation procedure.
D. is valid conditioned on his being identified at the trial.
Improved:
The act of the police in placing the accused in a police line-up without his prior consent—
(this now presents a clear problem)
A. violates his right against self-incrimination.
B. violates his right to counsel.
C. constitutes a valid police investigation procedure.
D. is valid conditioned on his being identified at the trial.
5. Include as much of the data in the stem and keep the options as short as possible.5
Poor:
A warrantless search is valid -
A. when the search is made by customs officers at the home of a known smuggler.
B. when the search is made by anti-drug enforcers.
C. when the search is made by policemen at a COMELEC checkpoint.
D. when the search is made for a bomb at the mall by the NBI.
Improved:
A warrantless search is valid when it is made -
A. by customs officers at the home of a known smuggler.
B. by anti-drug enforcers.
C. by policemen at a COMELEC checkpoint for illegal firearms.
D. by the NBI for a bomb at the mall.
6. One of the advantages of MCQs is that you can ask many questions to cover a good cross-section
of a subject. You can do this only if you make your MCQs simple, clear and short. Do not complicate a
problem with unessential facts. Include in the stem only the facts needed to make the problem clear.6
Irrelevant materials in the stem cause confusion.
Poor:
The police nabbed two robbery suspects after a police informer fingered them. During the
investigation, the police officers succeeded in convincing the suspects to go with them to the scene
of the crime, accompanied by the press, to reenact how they committed the crime. Photos were
taken. Was the reenactment admissible evidence?
A. No since it amounts to waiver of right to silence without the advice of counsel.
B. Yes since the reenactment was voluntary.
C. No since it is irrelevant evidence.
D. Yes since the reenactment was unaccompanied by any statement from the suspects.
Why is this poorly writen? Since only the “reenactment” is being questioned, the stem contains too
many unnecessary data.
Improved:
The police nabbed two robbery suspects whom they convinced during the investigation to go
with them to the scene of the crime to reenact how they committed it. Is the reenactment
admissible in evidence?
A. No since it amounts to waiver of right to silence without the advice of counsel.
B. Yes since the reenactment was voluntary.
C. No since it is irrelevant evidence.
D. Yes since the reenactment was unaccompanied by any statement from the suspects.
7. Avoid using the negative in the stem since it often confuses the examinee. But the negative is
justified when it tests his knowledge or understanding of exceptions to rules. In the latter cases, be
creative in using the negative in the problem. Capitalize the negative word to emphasize it.7
Poor:
The Supreme Court will NOT entertain a constitutional question UNLESS it is
determinative of the case itself because
A. it would prejudice the administration of justice.
B. the separation of powers demands respect due the other departments.
C. the Court would not have acquired jurisdiction over the case.
D. there is no actual case or controversy that justifies such a review.
Improved:
The Supreme Court will entertain a constitutional question only if it is determinative of the
case itself because
A. it would prejudice the administration of justice.
B. the separation of powers demands respect due the other departments.
C. the Court would not have acquired jurisdiction over the case.
D. there is no actual case or controversy that justifies such a review.
* * *
Poor:
The bank deposit secrecy law bars all inquiries into a bank deposit. But it allows exceptions.
Which of the following does NOT belong to the exceptions?
A. Cases of impeachment.
B. Cases involving bribery.
C. Cases of bigamy.
D. Cases where the money involved is subject of litigation.
Improved:
The bank deposit secrecy law bars all inquiries into a bank deposit. A deposit may, however,
be looked into
A. after prior notice to the depositor.
B. upon court order in annulment of marriage cases.
C. in cases of impeachment.
D. on motion in a bribery case.
8. Be sure that the choices you provide has only one correct answer that experts would generally
agree on.8 In their desire to make distractors plausible, some writers would include more than one correct
answer or choices that remain unsettled among experts and authorities.
9. Give no unintentional clues.9
Poor:
To prove that Susan stabbed her husband Sergio, Pete testified that he heard Rico running
down the street, shouting excitedly, “Sinaksak daw ni Susan ang asawa niya!” Unfortunately (a
clue to a negative answer), Rico’s declaration is –
A. admissible as part of res gestae.
B. inadmissible as hearsay.
C. admissible as independently relevant statement.
D. inadmissible as a mere opinion.
10. Avoid grammatical inconsistencies.10
Poor:The law that will determine jurisdiction over a particular case is the law in force at the time
of
A. the cause of action accrued.
B. the filing of the action.
C. the issues in the action are joined.
D. the defendant receives the complaint.
11. Avoid length clues.11
Poor:
The right to be presumed innocent is NOT violated by a law that establishes a presumption
of guilt based on a certain fact proved provided that
A. the burden of proving his innocence is shifted to the accused only when there is a
reasonable connection between the fact proved and the fact presumed from it.
B. the nature of the crime permits it.
C. the accused has a chance to overcome it.
D. the law is not retroactive.
Improved:
The right to be presumed innocent is NOT violated by a law that establishes a presumption
of guilt based on a certain fact proved provided that
A. what is proved and presumed are reasonably connected.
B. the nature of the crime committed permits a reverse presumption.
C. the accused has ample opportunity to overcome the adverse presumption.
D. the law is not retroactive.
12. Avoid the options: none of the above or all of the above.12 It gives the impression that the
examiner could not create another distractor. It also encourages questions with no correct answers.
Instead of “none of the above,” just use another distractor which will enhance the quality of the question.
13. Make your questions topic specific, not a hodge-podge of several legal principles.
Poor:
Which of the following laws is unconstitutional?
A. A law requiring cabinet members to attend all congressional hearings upon
proper notice.
B. A law revoking all permits to carry firearms outside of one’s residence.
C. A law authorizing warrantless searches by customs officials.
D. A law providing for dual citizenship.
Asking which law is unconstitutional could cover any topic in Constitutional law. Option A is on
Section 22 of Article VI Legislative Department, while Option B is on undue deprivation of property,
Option C is on rights against warranless search and seizures and Option D is on citizenship. The choices
should be coherent in order to test an examinee’s knowledge on a particular topic.
Improved:
Which is unconstitutional for being an invalid exercise of police power?
A. A law prohibiting the use of motor vehicles on certain days of the week.
B. A law imposing rent control.
C. A law prescribing minimum standards for the practice of the engineering profession.
D. A law prohibiting the sale of cigarettes to young men and women ages 18 to 25.
14. Do not use “modified” true or false questions. They are time consuming and accomplishes
little. Example:
I. The practice of law is a right in the sense that a lawyer cannot be prevented from
practicing law except for valid reasons.
II. The practice of law is a privilege because it is limited to persons of good moral character
with special qualifications duly ascertained and certified.
Which of the following best describes the statements above?
A. Only statement I is true.
B. Only statement II is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. None of the statements are true.
D. POINTERS IN IMPLEMENTING MCQ EXAMS IN THE CLASSROOM
We encourage you, especially those who are currently teaching review subjects, to use both types of
exams (MCQs and essays) for your classes. You need to acquaint your students with the changes in the
bar examinations that begin in 2011. You don’t want them surprised and unprepared. Constructing
MCQs is not difficult once you get the hang of it.
For a classroom examination we suggest that you start with at least 40 to 50 MCQs, eventually to
grow to 70 to 80, and one or two essay-type problems. If you use MCQs, correcting test booklets will no
longer be the great burden that it used to be. A trusted clerk can correct the MCQs, leaving you with only
the one or two essays to correct.
We suggest that you add ten MCQs to what you already have with each new semester until you are
able to build up a big collection of MCQs. Students have the tendency to stash away a copy of your
exams and build up a collection for future use. Take the following precautions:
1. Personally monitor the printing and xeroxing of your MCQs so no excess copies could be
made;
2. Require your students to mark their answers on the test questionaire itself so you can be sure
that they return all the MCQs to you after they have finished; and
3. Secure all used and unused question sheets for subsequent destruction.
To prevent copying between seatmates when the room is full prepare two sets, the second set beinga mere rearrangement of the first, and distribute them alternately to students on the same row.
To prepare for the 2011 bar exams, we invite you to send to the Supreme Court the MCQs you have
prepared and used for your classes. We will place these in a secure Central Depository of MCQs,
esentially as reference for developing bar exam MCQs. We are targeting not less than 1,000 MCQs per
bar subject for the 2011 bar exams. We will choose 100 MCQs per subject for the tests.
The MCQs you will send will give the Committee a reference for determining items of interest in
the academe. And, with a bit of reconstruction (like changing a few details of the stem and makingalterations in the distractors), such MCQs can acquire altered appearances, making them fair materials for
the bar examinations.
We suggest that you send us at least 50 MCQs in the subject you teach, 10 “knowledge and recall”
items, 20 “understanding” items, and 20 “analysis and solution” items. We will evaluate these and, if you
get it right, we will issue you a certificate as expert, first grade, in MCQ construction. This will qualify
you to lecture on the subject and place you in the list of potential bar examiners for the 2011 bar exams
and beyond.
III. PREPARING FOR ESSAY LAWYERING SKILLS EXAM
The second part of the bar exams, the essay type, is aimed at measuring the examinee’s lawyering
skills. It will cover one or two legal-dispute situations for which the examinee will be required to write a
paper.
For example, in Civil Law, the test might read like this:
Instructions:
Below is a hypothetical legal dispute.
a) Choose the side of the dispute that you want to uphold and defend; and
b) Prepare a trial memorandum in support of your position.
Do not write more than 4 arguments.
Suggestions:
a) Read the problem and get a sense of what the issues are;
b) Pick out the facts that are relevant to such issues;
c) Make a summary of the conflicting claims of the parties;
d) State the issues on which the resolution of the dispute will depend;
e) Prepare the arguments against the opposing side and the arguments in support of your own;
and
f) End with the relief you want, your prayer.
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
Alex sued Julio for the injury that his son Andy suffered through the fault of James. Julioresisted the action.
Andy made the following statement:
I am Andy, 10 years old, a grade four student. I am Alex’s son. I have a classmate
named James.
On July 7, I jumped from an adobe fence at the back of our barangay hall and
fractured my left leg. It was quite painful. I could not forget it. Someone called the
barangay captain and he took me to the hospital in a taxicab. The fence was rather tall. A
month ago, after school, James and I climbed and walked on top of it, trying to balance
ourselves as we went. We had previously done this when nobody was around and we
enjoyed the thrill of the heights. We always played together. We even swapped toys when
we were bored with what we had.
On that afternoon of July 7, while James and I were walking the fence, James
remarked to me that a policeman was coming towards us. I was quite terrified. I had been
told that policemen could put misbehaving children in jail. Actually, no policeman had
shown up at all where we were playing but James wanted to make fun of me. But, because
we never had a joke like it before, I really thought he was serious and would not make such
a dangerous joke. So I panicked and jumped from the fence to the ground.
Our teacher once said that James and I were good boys. But we were somewhat full of
play, she said. She had previously caught us playing games inside the classroom and sent
for our parents. The school was quite strict in the matter of order and discipline inside the
campus.
I stayed in the hospital for three days and the doctor had to put a cast on my leg. It
itched a lot afterwards. I walked with great difficulty and could not go back to school for at
least one week. It took a month before they removed the cast and I still walk awkwardly with
a slight pain to this day. I made this statement because my dad, Alex, wants to file an action
against James father, Julio for the injury and pain that I suffered.
For his part, James made the following statement:
I am James, 10 years old, and a grade four student. My dad’s name is Julio. He is a
caring father and always showed concern for his children.
Andy is my classmate and best friend. When Andy jumped from the fence at the back
of the barangay hall on the afternoon of July 7 and appeared hurt, I immediately went down
and called for help. The barangay chairman came and had Andy taken to the hospital. I
did not want Andy to get hurt at all.
Andy and I went together a lot and often played the games that young boys enjoyed,
even when at times these games became a little rough. We knew from what our parents have
been telling us, however, that we should be careful not to get hurt or to hurt others. Still, we
are growing boys and we had previously climbed the fence at the back of the barangay hall
before. What happened on the afternoon of July 7 was that we both climbed the fence after
school. The day was cloudy and cool. We walked on top of the fence and we enjoyed the
thrill that it offered. Andy teased me this time when I walked the fence, saying how slow and
afraid I was. This was of course not true because I was not afraid at all.
When Andy’s turn came, I also made a joke and said that a policeman was coming
towards us when this was not true. I did not expect Andy to be scared by what I said. I made
this statement at my dad’s request.
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
Additional suggestions:
It will be best if you can prepare a draft of your work on blank sheets that you have been
provided. This will permit you to freely edit your work, making marks, erasures, and insertions to
your satisfaction. Just make sure that you leave at least 20 minutes or so for transferring your
work to your examination notebook. One short bell will warn you that you have 20 minutes left.
When the bell rings twice to signal the end of the exam, your notebook will be collected whether
you are finished or not. Time pressure is a part of the exam.
You will not be graded for a technically right or wrong answer but for the quality of your
legal advocacy. The test is intended to measure your skills in:
a) Communicating in English — 20%
b) Sorting out the conflicting claims and extracting those facts that are relevant to the issue or
issues in the case — 15%
c) Identifying the issue or issues presented — 15%
d) Constructing your arguments and persuading your reader to your point of view — 50%
The essay-type exam will help measure depth of learning and true intelligence. The passing
standard for correction will be work expected of a beginning practitioner, not a seasoned lawyer.
ROBERTO A. ABAD
Associate Justice
2011 Bar Exams Chairman
1 Dr. Leticia Asuzano, How to Construct Multiple Choice Items, Compendium for PRC Board Examiners
citing Thorndike, R.M. Measurement and Evaluation in Psychology and Education, Prentice-Hall, 1977,
New York, New York.
2 Ibid.
3 Ibid.
4 Ibid.
5 Ibid.
6 Ibid.
7 Ibid.
8 Ibid.
9 Ibid.
10 Ibid.
11 Ibid.
12 Ibid.
Sunday, March 6, 2011
2011 BAR EXAM COVERAGE FOR REMEDIAL LAW
I. General Principles
A. Concept of Remedial Law
B. Substantive Law as Distinguished from Remedial Law
C. Rule-making Power of the Supreme Court
1. Limitations on the rule-making power of the Supreme Court
2. Power of the Supreme Court to amend and suspend procedural rules
D. Nature of Philippine Courts
1. Meaning of a court
2. Court as distinguished from a judge
3. Classification of Philippine courts
4. Courts of original and appellate jurisdiction
5. Courts of general and special jurisdiction
6. Constitutional and statutory courts
7. Courts of law and equity
8. Principle of judicial hierarchy
9. Doctrine of non-interference or doctrine of judicial stability
II. Jurisdiction
A. Jurisdiction over the parties
1. How jurisdiction over the plaintiff is acquired
2. How jurisdiction over the defendant is acquired
B. Jurisdiction over the subject matter
1. Meaning of jurisdiction over the subject matter
2. Jurisdiction versus the exercise of jurisdiction
3. Error of jurisdiction as distinguished from error of judgment
4. How jurisdiction is conferred and determined
5. Doctrine of primary jurisdiction
6. Doctrine of adherence of jurisdiction
7. Objections to jurisdiction over the subject matter
8. Effect of estoppel on objections to jurisdiction
C. Jurisdiction over the issues
D. Jurisdiction over the res or property in litigation
E. Jurisdiction of Courts
1. Supreme Court
2. Court of Appeals
3. Court of Tax Appeals
4. Sandiganbayan
5. Regional Trial Courts
6. Family Courts
7. Metropolitan Trial Courts/Municipal Trial Courts
8. Shariah Courts
F. Jurisdiction over small claims, cases covered by the rules on Summary Procedure and Barangay Conciliation
G. Totality Rule
III. Civil Procedure
A. Actions
1. Meaning of ordinary civil actions
2. Meaning of special civil actions
3. Meaning of criminal actions
4. Civil actions versus Special proceedings
5. Personal actions and real actions
6. Local and transitory actions
7. Actions in rem, in personam and quasi in rem
B. Cause of Action
1. Meaning of cause of action
2. Right of Action versus Cause of action
3. Failure to state a cause of action
4. Test of the sufficiency of a cause of action
5. Splitting a single cause of action and its effects
6. Joinder and misjoinder of causes of action
C. Parties to Civil Actions
1. Real Parties in interest; Indispensable parties; Representatives as parties; Necessary parties; Indigent Parties; Alternative defendants
2. Compulsory and permissive joinder of parties
3. Misjoinder and non-joinder of parties
4. Class Suit
5. Suits against entities without juridical personality
6. Effect of death of party litigant
D. Venue
1. Venue versus Jurisdiction
2. Venue of real actions
3. Venue of personal actions
4. Venue of actions against non-residents
5. When the Rules on Venue Do not Apply
6. Effects of Stipulations on Venue
E. Pleadings
1. Kinds of Pleadings
a. Complaint
b. Answer
(1) Negative defenses
(2) Negative pregnant
(3) Affirmative Defenses
c. Counterclaims
(1) Compulsory counterclaim
(2) Permissive counterclaim
(3) Effect on the Counterclaim when the complaint is dismissed
d. Cross-claims
e. Third (fourth, etc.) party complaints
f. Complaint-in-intervention
g. Reply
2. Pleadings allowed in small claim cases and cases covered by the rules on summary procedure
3. Parts of a pleading
a. Caption
b. Signature and address
c. Verification and certification against forumshopping
(1) Requirements of a corporation executing the verification/certification of non-forum shopping
d. Effect of the signature of counsel in a pleading
4. Allegations in a pleading
a. Manner of making allegations
(1) Condition precedent
(2) Fraud, mistake, malice, intent, knowledge and other condition of the mind, judgments, official
documents or acts
b. Pleading an actionable document
c. Specific denials
(1) Effect of failure to make specific denials
(2) When a specific denial requires an oath
5. Effect of failure to plead
1. Failure to plead defenses and objections
2. Failure to plead a compulsory counterclaim and cross-claim
6. Default
a. When a declaration of default is proper
b. Effect of an order of default
c. Relief from an order of default
d. Effect of a partial default
e. Extent of relief
f. Actions where default are not allowed
7. Filing and Service of pleadings
I. Payment of docket fees
II. Filing versus service of pleadings
III. Periods of filing of pleadings
IV. Manner of filing
V. Modes of service
(1) Personal service
(2) Service by mail
(3) Substituted service
(4) Service of judgments, final orders or resolutions
(5) Priorities in modes of service and filing
(6) When service is deemed complete
(7) Proof of filing and service
8. Amendment
a. Amendment as a matter of right
b. Amendments by leave of court
c. Formal amendment
d. Amendments to conform to or authorize presentation of evidence
e. Different from supplemental pleadings
f. Effect of amended pleading
F. Summons
1. Nature and purpose of summons in relation to actions in personam, in rem and quasi in rem
2. Voluntary appearance
3. Personal service
4. Substituted service
5. Constructive service (by publication)
a. Service upon a defendant where his identity is unknown or where his whereabouts are unknown
b. Service upon residents temporarily outside the Philippines
6. Extra-territorial service, when allowed
7. Service upon prisoners and minors
8. Proof of service
G. Motions
1. Motions in general
a. Definition of a motion
b. Motions versus pleadings
c. Contents and form of motions
d. Notice of hearing and hearing of motions
e. Omnibus motion rule
f. Litigated and ex parte motions
g. Pro-forma motions
2. Motions for Bill of Particulars
a. Purpose and when applied for
b. Actions of the court
c. Compliance with the order and effect of noncompliance
d. Effect on the period to file a responsive pleading
3. Motion to Dismiss
a. Grounds
b. Resolution of Motion
c. Remedies of plaintiff when the complaint is dismissed
d. Remedies of the defendant when the motion is denied
e. Effect of dismissal of complaint on certain grounds
f. When grounds pleaded as affirmative defenses
g. Bar by dismissal
h. Distinguised from demurrer to evidence under Rule 33
H. Dismissal of Actions
1. Dismissal upon notice by plaintiff; Two-dismissal rule
2. Dismissal upon motion by plaintiff; effect on existing counterclaim
3. Dismissal due to the fault of plaintiff
4. Dismissal of counterclaim, cross-claim or third-party complaint
I. Pre-trial
1. Concept of pre-trial
2. Nature and purpose
3. Notice of pre-trial
4. Appearance of parties; effect of failure to appear
5. Pre-trial brief; effect of failure to appear
6. Distinction between pre-trial in civil case and pre-trial in criminal case
7. Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)
J. Intervention
1. Requisites for intervention
2. Time to intervene
3. Remedy for the denial of motion to intervene
K. Subpoena
1. Subpoena duces tecum
2. Subpoena ad testificandum
3. Service of subpoena
4. Compelling attendance of witnesses; Contempt
5. Quashing of subpoena
L. Modes of Discovery
1. Depositions pending action; Depositions before action or pending appeal
a. Meaning of deposition
b. Uses; Scope of examination
c. When may objections to admissibility be made
d. When may taking of deposition be terminated or its scope limited
2. Written interrogatories to adverse parties
a. Consequences of refusal to answer
b. Effect of failure to serve written interrogatories
3. Request for Admission
a. Implied admission by adverse party
b. Consequences of failure to answer request for admission
c. Effect of admission
d. Effect of failure to file and serve request for admission
4. Production or inspection of documents or things
5. Physical and mental examination of persons
6. Consequences of refusal to comply with modes of discovery
M. Trial
1. Adjournments and postponements
2. requisites of motion to postpone trial
a. for absence of evidence
b. for illness of party or counsel
3. Agreed statement of facts
4. Order of trial; reversal of order
5. Consolidation or Severance of hearing or trial
6. Delegation of reception of evidence
7. Trial by commissioners
a. Reference by consent or ordered on motion
b.Powers of the commissioner
c.Commissioner’s report; notice to parties and hearing on the report
N. Demurrer to Evidence
1. Ground
2. Effect of denial
3. Effect of grant
4. Waiver of right to present evidence
5. Demurrer to evidence in a civil case versus demurrer to evidence in a criminal case
O. Judgments and Final Orders
1. Judgment without trial
2. Contents of a judgment
3. Judgment on the pleadings
4. Summary judgments
a. for the claimant
b. for the defendant
c. when the case not fully adjudicated
d. affidavits and attachments
5. Judgment on the pleadings versus summary judgments
6. Rendition of judgments and final orders
7. Entry of judgment and final order
P. Post Judgment Remedies
1. Motion for New Trial or reconsideration
a. Grounds
b. When to file
c. Denial of the motion; effect
d. Grant of the motion; effect
e. Remedy when motion is denied, Fresh 15-day period rule
2. Appeals in General
a. Judgments and final orders subject to appeal
b. Matters not appealable
c. Remedy against judgments and orders which are not appealable
d. Modes of appeal
(1) Ordinary appeal
(2) Petition for review
(3) Petition for review on certiorari
e. Issues to be raised on appeal
f. Period of appeal
g. Perfection of appeal
h. Appeal from judgments or final orders of the MTC
i. Appeal from judgments or final orders of the RTC
j. Appeal from judgments or final orders of the CA
k. Appeal from judgments or final orders of the CTA
l. Review of final judgments or final orders of the COA
m. Review of final judgments or final orders of the COMELEC
n. Review of final judgments or final orders of the CSC
o. Review of final judgments or final orders of the Ombudsman
p. Review of final judgments or final orders of the NLRC
q. Review of final judgments or final orders of quasi-judicial agencies
3. Relief from judgments, orders and other proceedings
a. Grounds for availing of the remedy
b. Time to file petition
c. Contents of petition
4. Annulment of Judgments or final orders and resolutions
a. Grounds for annulment
b. Period to file action
c. Effects of judgment of annulment
5. Collateral attack of judgments
Q. Execution, Satisfaction and Effect of Judgments
1. Difference between finality of judgment for purposes of appeal; for purposes of execution
2. When execution shall issue
a. Execution as a matter of right
b. Discretionary execution
3. How a judgment is executed
a. Execution by motion or by independent action
b. Issuance and contents of a writ of execution
c. Execution of judgments for money
d. Execution of judgments for specific acts
e. Execution of special judgments
f. Effect of levy on third persons
4. Properties exempt from execution
5. Proceedings where property is claimed by third persons
a. in relation to third party claim in attachment and replevin
6. Rules on Redemption
7. Examination of Judgment Obligor When Judgment is unsatisfied
8. Examination of Obligor of Judgment Obligor
9. Effect of Judgment or Final Orders
10. Enforcement and Effect of Foreign Judgments or Final Orders
R. Provisional Remedies
1. Nature of provisional remedies
2. Jurisdiction over provisional remedies
3. Preliminary Attachment
a. Grounds for issuance of writ of attachment
b. Requisites
c. Issuance and contents of order of attachment; affidavit and bond
d. Rule on prior or contemporaneous service of summons
e. Manner of attaching real and personal property; when property attached is claimed by third person
f. Discharge of attachment and the counter-bond
g. Satisfaction of judgment out of property attached
4. Preliminary Injunction
a. Definitions and Differences: Preliminary Injunction and Temporary Restraining Order
b. Requisites
c. Kinds of Injunction
d. When writ may be issued
e. Grounds for issuance of preliminary injunction
f. Grounds for objection to, or for the dissolution of injunction or restraining order
g. Duration of TRO
h. In relation to RA 8975, Ban on issuance of TRO or Writ of Injunction in cases involving government infrastructure projects
i. Rule on prior or contemporaneous service of summons in relation to attachment
5. Receivership
a. Cases when receiver may be appointed
b. Requisites
c. Requirements before issuance of an Order
d. General powers of a receiver
e. Two (2) kinds of bonds
f. Termination of receivership
6. Replevin
a. When may writ be issued
b. Requisites
c. Affidavit and bond; Redelivery Bond
d. Sheriff’s duty in the implementation of the writ; when property is claimed by third party
S. Special Civil Actions
1. Nature of special civil actions
2. Ordinary civil actions versus special civil actions
3. Jurisdiction and venue
4. Interpleader
a. Requisites for interpleader
b. When to file
5. Declaratory Reliefs and Similar Remedies
a. Who may file the action
b. Requisites of action for declaratory relief
c. When court may refuse to make judicial declaration
d. Conversion to ordinary action
e. Proceedings considered as similar remedies
A. Reformation of an instrument
B. Consolidation of ownership
C. Quieting of title to real property
6. Review of Judgments and Final Orders or Resolution of the COMELEC and COA
a. Application of Rule 65 under Rule 64
b. Distinction in the application of Rule 65 to judgments of the COMELEC and COA and the application of Rule 65 to other tribunals, persons and officers
7. Certiorari, Prohibition and Mandamus
a. Definitions and distinctions
b. Requisites
c. When petition for certiorari, prohibition and mandamus is proper
d. Injunctive relief
e. Certiorari distinguished from Appeal by Certiorari; Prohibition and Mandamus distinguished from Injunction; when and where to file petition
f. Exceptions to filing of motion for reconsideration before filing petition
g. Reliefs petitioner is entitled to
h. Actions/Omissions of MTC/RTC in election cases
i. Where to file petition
j. Effects of filing of an unmeritorious petition
8. Quo Warranto
a. Distinguish from Quo Warranto in the
Omnibus Election Code
b. When government commence an action against individuals
c. When individual may commence an action
d. Judgment in Quo Warranto action
e. Rights of a person adjudged entitled to public office
9. Expropriation
a. Matters to allege in complaint for expropriation
b. Two stages in every action for expropriation
c. When plaintiff can immediately enter into possession of the real property, in relation to RA 8974
d. New system of immediate payment of initial just compensation
e. Defenses and objections
f. Order of Expropriation
g. Ascertainment of just compensation
h. Appointment of Commissioners; Commissioner’s report; Court action upon commissioner’s report
i. Rights of plaintiff upon judgment and payment
j. Effect of recording of judgment
10. Foreclosure of Real Estate Mortgage
a. Judgment on foreclosure for payment or sale
b. Sale of mortgaged property; effect
c. Disposition of proceeds of sale
d. Deficiency judgment
(1) Instances when court cannot render deficiency judgment
e. Judicial foreclosure versus extrajudicial foreclosure
f. Equity of redemption versus right of redemption
11. Partition
a. Who may file complaint; who should be made defendants
b. Matters to allege in the complaint for partition
c. Two (2) stages in every action for partition
d. Order of partition and partition by agreement
e. Partition by commissioners; Appointment of commissioners, Commissioner’s report; Court action upon commissioner’s report
f. Judgment and its effects
g. Partition of personal property
h. Prescription of action
12. Forcible Entry and Unlawful Detainer
a. Definitions and Distinction
b. Distinguished from accion publiciana and accion reinvindicatoria
c. How to determine jurisdiction in accion publiciana and accion reinvindicatoria
d. Who may institute the action and when; against whom the action may be maintained
e. Pleadings allowed
f. Action on the complaint
g. When demand is necessary
h. Preliminary injunction and preliminary mandatory injunction
i. Resolving defense of ownership
j. How to stay the immediate execution of judgment
k. Summary procedure, prohibited pleadings
13. Contempt
a. Kinds of contempt
b. Purpose and nature of each
c. Remedy against direct contempt; penalty
d. Remedy against indirect contempt; penalty
e. How contempt proceedings are commenced
f. Acts deemed punishable as indirect contempt
g. When imprisonment shall be imposed
h. Contempt against quasi-judicial bodies
IV. Special Proceedings
A. Settlement of Estate of Deceased Persons, Venue and Process
1. Which court has jurisdiction
2. Venue in judicial settlement of estate
3. Extent of jurisdiction of Probate Court
4. Powers and Duties of Probate Court
B. Summary Settlement of Estates
1. Extrajudicial settlement by agreement between heirs, when allowed
2. Two-year prescriptive period
3. Affidavit of Self-adjudication by sole heir
4. Summary settlement of estates of small value, when allowed
5. Remedies of aggrieved parties after extra-judicial settlement of estate
C. Production and Probate of Will
1. Nature of probate proceeding
2. Who may petition for probate; persons entitled to notice
D. Allowance or Disallowance of Will
1. Contents of petition for allowance of will
2. Grounds for disallowing a will
3. Reprobate; Requisites before will proved outside allowed in the Philippines; effects of probate
E. Letters Testamentary and of Administration
1. When and To whom letters of administration granted
2. Order of preference
3. Opposition to issuance of letters testamentary; simultaneous filing of petition for administration
4. Powers and duties of Executors and Administrators; restrictions on the powers
5. Appointment of Special Administrator
6. Grounds for removal of administrator
F. Claims Against the Estate
1. Time within which claims shall be filed; exceptions
2. Statute of Non-claims
3. Claim of Executor or administrator against the Estate
4. Payment of Debts
G. Actions by and against Executors and Administrators
1. Actions that may be brought against executors and administrators
2. Requisites before creditor may bring an action for recovery of property fraudulently conveyed by the deceased
H. Distribution and Partition
1. Liquidation
2. Project of Partition
3. Remedy of an heir entitled to residue but not given his share
4. Instances when probate court may issue writ of execution
I. Trustees
1. Distinguished from executor/administrator
2. Conditions of the Bond
3. Requisites for the removal and resignation of a trustee
4. Grounds for removal and resignation of a trustee
5. Extent of authority of trustee
J. Escheat
1. When to file
2. Requisites for filing of petition
3. Remedy of respondent against petition; period for filing a claim
K. Guardianship
1. General powers and duties of guardians
2. Conditions of the bond of the guardian
3. Rule on Guardianship over minor
L. Adoption
1. Distinguish domestic adoption from inter-country adoption
2. Domestic Adoption Act
a. effects of adoption
b. instances when adoption may be rescinded
c. effects of rescission of adoption
3. Inter-country Adoption
a. when allowed
b. functions of the RTC
c. “best interest of the minor” standard
M. Writ of Habeas Corpus
1. Contents of the petition
2. Contents of the Return
3. Distinguish peremptory writ from preliminary citation
4. When not proper/applicable
5. When writ disallowed/discharged
6. Distinguish from writ of Amparo and Habeas Data
7. Rules on Custody of Minors and Writ of Habeas Corpus in Relation to Custody of Minors (AM No. 03-04-04-SC)
N. Writ of Amparo (AM No. 07-9-12-SC)
1. Coverage
2. Distinguish from habeas corpus and habeas data
3. Differences between Amparo and search warrant
4. Who may file
5. Contents of return
6. Effects of failure to file return
7. Omnibus waiver rule
8. Procedure for hearing
9. Institution of separate action
10. Effect of filing of a criminal action
11. Consolidation
12. Interim reliefs available to petitioner and respondent
13. Quantum of proof in application for issuance of writ of Amparo
O. Writ of Habeas Data (AM No. 08-1-16-SC)
1. Scope of writ
2. Availability of writ
3. Distinguish from Habeas Corpus and Amparo
4. Who may file
5. Contents of the petition
6. Contents of return
7. Instances when petition be heard in chambers
8. Consolidation
9. Effect of filing of a criminal action
10. Institution of separate action
11. Quantum of proof in application for issuance of writ of Amparo
P. Change of Name
1. Differences under Rule 103, RA 9048 and Rule 108
2. Grounds for change of name
Q. Absentees
1. Purpose of the Rule
2. Who may file; when to file
R. Cancellation or Correction of Entries in the Civil Registry
1. Entries subject to cancellation or correction under Rule 108, in relation to RA 9048
S. Appeals in Special Proceeding
1. Judgments and orders for which appeal may be taken
2. When to appeal
3. Modes of appeal
4. Rule on Advance Distribution
V. Criminal Procedure
A. General Matters
1. Distinguish Jurisdiction over subject matter from jurisdiction over person of the accused
2. Requisites for exercise of criminal jurisdiction
3. Jurisdiction of Criminal courts
4. When injunction may be issued to restrain criminal prosecution
B. Prosecution of Offenses
1. Criminal actions, how instituted
2. Who may file them, crimes that cannot be prosecuted de officio
3. Criminal actions, when enjoined
4. Control of prosecution
5. Sufficiency of Complaint or Information
6. Designation of Offense
7. Cause of the Accusation
8. Duplicity of the Offense; Exception
9. Amendment or Substitution of complaint or information
10. Venue of criminal actions
11. Intervention of offended party
C. Prosecution of Civil Action
1. Rule on implied institution of civil action with criminal action
2. When civil action may proceed independently
3. When separate civil action is suspended
4. Effect of the death of accused or convict on civil action
5. Prejudicial Question
6. Rule on Filing Fees in civil action deemed instituted with the criminal action
D. Preliminary Investigation
1. Nature of right
2. Purposes of preliminary investigation
3. Who may conduct determination of existence of probable cause
4. Resolution of investigation prosecutor
5. Review
6. When warrant of arrest may issue
7. Cases not requiring a preliminary investigation
8. Remedies of accused if there was no preliminary investigation
9. Inquest
E. Arrest
1. Arrest, how made
2. Arrest without warrant, when lawful
3. Method of arrest
a. by officer with warrant
b. by officer without warrant
c. by private person
4. Requisites of a valid warrant of arrest
5. Determination of Probable Cause for issuance of warrant of arrest
6. Distinguish probable cause of fiscal from that of a judge
F. Bail
1. Nature
2. When a matter of right; exceptions
3. When a matter of discretion
4. Hearing of application for bail in capital offenses
5. Guidelines in fixing amount of bail
6. Bail when not required
7. Increase or Reduction of Bail
8. Forfeiture and Cancellation of bail
9. Application not a bar to objections in illegal arrest, lack of or irregular preliminary investigation
10. Hold Departure Order & Bureau of Immigration Watchlist
G. Rights of the Accused
1. Rights of accused at the trial
2. Rights of persons under Custodial Investigation
H. Arraignment and Plea
1. Arraignment and Plea, how made
2. When should plea of NOT GUILTY be entered
3. When may accused enter a plea of guilty to a lesser offense
4. Accused plead guilty to capital offense, what the court should do
5. Searching Inquiry
6. Improvident plea
7. Grounds for suspension of arraignment
I. Motion to Quash
1. Grounds
2. Distinguish from demurrer to evidence
3. Effects of sustaining the motion to quash
4. Exception to the rule that sustaining the motion is not a bar to another prosecution
5. Double Jeopardy
6. Provisional Dismissal
J. Pre-trial
1. Matters to be considered during pre-trial
2. What the court should do when prosecution and offended party agree to the plea offered by the accused
3. Pre-trial agreement
4. Non-appearance during pre-trial
5. Pre-trial order
6. Referral of some cases for Court Annexed Mediation and Judicial Dispute Resolution
K. Trial
1. Instances when presence of accused is required by law
2. Requisite before trial can be suspended on account of absence of witness
3. Trial in Absentia
4. Remedy when accused is not brought to trial within the prescribed period
5. Requisites for discharge of accused to become a state witness
6. Effects of Discharge of accused as state witness
7. Demurrer to Evidence
L. Judgment
1. Requisites of a judgment
2. Contents of Judgment
3. Promulgation of judgment; instances of promulgation of judgment in absentia
4. When does judgment become final (four instances)
M. New Trial or Reconsideration
1. Grounds for New Trial
2. Grounds for Reconsideration
3. Requisites before a new trial may be granted on ground of newly discovered evidence
4. Effects of granting a new trial or reconsideration
5. Application of Neypes Doctrine in Criminal Cases
N. Appeal
1. Effect of an Appeal
2. Where to appeal
3. How appeal taken
4. Effect of appeal by any of several accused
5. Grounds for dismissal of appeal
O. Search and Seizure
1. Nature of search warrant
2. Distinguish from warrant of arrest
3. Application for search warrant, where filed
4. Probable Cause
5. Personal examination by judge of the applicant and witnesses
6. Particularity of place to be searched and things to be seized
7. Personal property to be seized
8. Exceptions to search warrant requirement
a. Search incidental to lawful arrest
b. Consented Search
c. Search of moving vehicle
d. Check points; body checks in airport
e. Plain view situation
f. Stop and Frisk situation
g. Enforcement of Custom Laws
9. Remedies from unlawful search and seizure
P. Provisional Remedies
1. Nature
2. Kinds of provisional remedies
VI. Evidence
A. General Principles
1. Concept of Evidence
2. Scope of the Rules of Evidence
3. Evidence in Civil Cases Versus Evidence in Criminal Cases
4. Proof Versus Evidence
5. Factum Probans Versus Factum Probandum
6. Admissibility of Evidence
a. Requisites for admissibility of evidence
b. Relevance of evidence and collateral matters
c. Multiple admissibility
d. Conditional admissibility
e. Curative admissibility
f. Direct and circumstantial evidence
g. Positive and negative evidence
h. Competent and credible evidence
7. Burden of Proof and Burden of Evidence
8. Presumptions
a. Conclusive presumptions
b. Disputable presumptions
9. Liberal Construction of the Rules of Evidence
10. Quantum of Evidence (Weight And Sufficiency of Evidence)
a. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
b. Preponderance of evidence
c. Substantial evidence
d. Clear and convincing evidence
B. Judicial Notice and Judicial Admissions
1. What Need Not be Proved
2. Matters of Judicial Notice
a. Mandatory
b. Discretionary
3. Judicial Admissions
a. Effect of judicial admissions
b. How judicial admissions may be contradicted
4. Judicial Notice of Foreign Laws, Law of Nations and Municipal Ordinance
C. Object (Real) Evidence
1. Nature of Object Evidence
2. Requisites for Admissibility
3. Categories of Object Evidence
4. Demonstrative Evidence
5. View of an Object or Scene
6. Chain of Custody in Relation to Section 21 of the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002
7. Rule on DNA Evidence (A.M. No. 06-11-5-SC)
a. Meaning of DNA
b. Applicable for DNA testing order
c. Post-conviction DNA testing; remedy
d. Assessment of probative value of DNA evidence and admissibility
e. Rules on evaluation of reliability of the DNA testing Methodology
D. Documentary Evidence
1. Meaning of Documentary Evidence
2. Requisites for Admissibility
3. Best Evidence Rule
a. Meaning of the rule
b. When applicable
c. Meaning of original
d. Requisites for introduction of secondary evidence
4. Rules on Electronic Evidence (A.M. No. 01-7-01-SC)
a. Meaning of electronic evidence; electronic data massage
b. Probative value of electronic documents or evidentiary weight; method of proof
c. Authentication of electronic documents and electronic signatures
d. Electronic documents and the hearsay rule
e. Audio, photographic, video and ephemeral evidence
5. Parol Evidence Rule
a. Application of the parol evidence rule
b. When parole evidence can be introduced
c. Distinctions between the best evidence rule and parol evidence rule
6. Authentication and Proof of Documents
a. Meaning of authentication
b. Public and private documents
c. When a private writing requires authentication; proof of a private writing
d. When evidence of authenticity of a private writing is not required (ancient documents)
e. How to prove genuineness of a handwriting
f. Public documents as evidence; proof of official record
g. Attestation of a copy
h. Public record of a public document
i. Proof of lack of record
j. How a judicial record is impeached
k. Proof of notarial documents
l. How to explain alterations in a document
m. Documentary evidence in an unofficial language
E. Testimonial Evidence
1. Qualifications of a Witness
2. Competency Versus Credibility of a Witness
3. Disqualifications of Witnesses
a. Disqualification by reason of mental capacity or immaturity
b. Disqualification by reason of marriage
c. Disqualification by reason of death or insanity of adverse party
d. Disqualification by reason of privileged communications
(1) Husband and wife
(2) Attorney and client
(3) Physician and patient
(4) Priest and penitent
(5) Public officers
e. Parental and filial privilege rule
4. Examination of a Witness
a. Rights and obligations of a witness
b. Order in the examination of an individual witness
(1) Direct examination
(2) Cross examination
(3) Re-direct examination
(4) Re-cross examination
(5) Recalling the witness
c. Leading and misleading questions
d. Methods of impeachment of adverse party’s witness
e. How the witness is impeached by evidence of inconsistent statements (laying the predicate)
f. Evidence of the good character of a witness
5. Admissions and Confessions
a. Res inter alios acta rule
b. Admission by a party
c. Admission by a third party
d. Admission by a co-partner or agent
e. Admission by a conspirator
f. Admission by privies
g. Admission by silence
h. Confessions
i. Similar acts as evidence
6. Hearsay Rule
a. Meaning of hearsay
b. Reason for exclusion of hearsay evidence
c. Exceptions to the hearsay rule
(1) Dying declaration
(2) Declaration against interest
(3) Act or declaration about pedigree
(4) Family reputation or tradition regarding pedigree
(5). Common reputation
(6). Part of the res gestae
(7). Entries in the course of business
(8). Entries in official records
(9). Commercial lists and the like
(10). Learned treaties
(11). Testimony or deposition at a former trial
7. Opinion Rule
a. Opinion of expert witness
b. Opinion of ordinary witness
8. Character Evidence
a. Criminal cases
b. Civil cases
9. Rule on Examination of a Child Witness (A.M. No. 004-07-SC)
a. Applicability of the rule
b. Meaning of “child witness”
c. Competency of a child witness
d. Examination of a child witness
e. Live-link TV testimony of a child witness
f. Videotaped deposition of a child witness
g. Hearsay exception in child abuse cases
h. Sexual abuse shield rule
i. Protective orders
F. Offer and Objection
1. Offer of Evidence
2. When to Make an Offer
3. Objection
4. Repetition of an Objection
5. Ruling
6. Striking Out of an Answer
7. Tender of Excluded Evidence
G. Supreme Court Rulings as of December 2010
VII. Revised Rules on Summary Procedure
A. Cases covered by the Rule
B. Effect of failure to answer
C. Preliminary conference and appearances of parties
VIII. Katarungang Pambarangay
A. Cases covered
B. Subject matter for amicable settlement
C. Venue
D. When parties may directly go to court
E. Execution
F. Repudiation
IX. Rule of Procedure for Small Claims Cases (AM No. 08-8-7-SC)
A. Scope and applicability of the Rule
B. Commencement of small claims action; Response
C. Prohibited pleadings and motions
D. Appearances
E. Hearing; duty of the judge
F. Finality of judgment
X. Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases (AM No. 09-6-8-SC)
A. Scope and Applicability of the Rule
B. Civil Procedure
1. Prohibition against Temporary Restraining Order and Preliminary Injunction
2. Pre-trial Conference; Consent Decree
3. Prohibited Pleadings and Motions
4. Temporary Environmental Protection Order (TEPO)
5. Judgment and Execution; Reliefs in a citizen’s suit
6. Permanent Environmental Protection Order; Writ of continuing mandamus
7. Strategic Lawsuit against Public Participation
C. Special Proceedings
1. Writ of Kalikasan
2. Prohibited pleadings and motions
3. Discovery measures
4. Writ of Continuing Mandamus
D. Criminal Procedure
1. Who may file
2. Institution of criminal and civil action
3. Arrest without warrant, when valid
4. Procedure in the custody and disposition of seized items
5. Bail
6. Arraignment and Plea
7. Pre-trial
8. Subsidiary liabilities
E. Evidence
1. Precautionary principle
2. Documentary evidence
IMPORTANT NOTE: This bar coverage description is not intended and should not be
used by law schools as a syllabus or course outline in the covered subjects. It has been
drawn up for the limited purpose of ensuring that candidates reviewing for the bar
examinations are guided on what basic and minimum amounts of laws, doctrines, and
principles they need to know and be able to use correctly before they can be licensed to
practice law. More is required for excellent and distinguished work as members of the
Bar.
Source: http://sc.judiciary.gov.ph/bar/announcement/Syllabi%20_RemedialLaw.pdf
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